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An XSS vulnerability was reported on one of the public websites of a company. The security department confirmed the finding and needs to provide a recommendation to the application owner. Which of the following recommendations will best prevent this vulnerability from being exploited? (Select two).
An analyst is reviewing a dashboard from the company's SIEM and finds that an IP address known to be malicious can be tracked to numerous high-priority events in the last two hours. The dashboard indicates that these events relate to TTPs. Which of the following is the analyst most likely using?
While reviewing web server logs, an analyst notices several entries with the same time stamps, but all contain odd characters in the request line. Which of the following steps should be taken next?
Which of the following is the best framework for assessing how attackers use techniques over an infrastructure to exploit a target's information assets?
An organization identifies a method to detect unexpected behavior, crashes, or resource leaks in a system by feeding invalid, unexpected, or random data to stress the application. Which of the following best describes this testing methodology?
A security analyst has received an incident case regarding malware spreading out of control on a customer's network. The analyst is unsure how to respond. The configured EDR has automatically obtained a sample of the malware and its signature. Which of the following should the analyst perform next to determine the type of malware, based on its telemetry?
A security analyst needs to secure digital evidence related to an incident. The security analyst must ensure that the accuracy of the data cannot be repudiated. Which of the following should be implemented?
The Chief Information Security Officer is directing a new program to reduce attack surface risks and threats as part of a zero trust approach. The IT security team is required to come up with priorities for the program. Which of the following is the best priority based on common attack frameworks?
Several reports with sensitive information are being disclosed via file sharing services. The company would like to improve its security posture against this threat. Which of the following security controls would best support the company in this scenario?
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a large management firm has selected a cybersecurity framework that will help the organization demonstrate its investment in tools and systems to protect its data. Which of the following did the CISO most likely select?

Question 279 - CS0-003 discussion

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A security analyst has identified a new malware file that has impacted the organization. The malware is polymorphic and has built-in conditional triggers that require a connection to the internet. The CPU has an idle process of at least 70%. Which of the following best describes how the security analyst can effectively review the malware without compromising the organization's network?

A.
Utilize an RDP session on an unused workstation to evaluate the malware.
Answers
A.
Utilize an RDP session on an unused workstation to evaluate the malware.
B.
Disconnect and utilize an existing infected asset off the network.
Answers
B.
Disconnect and utilize an existing infected asset off the network.
C.
Create a virtual host for testing on the security analyst workstation.
Answers
C.
Create a virtual host for testing on the security analyst workstation.
D.
Subscribe to an online service to create a sandbox environment.
Answers
D.
Subscribe to an online service to create a sandbox environment.
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A sandbox environment is a safe and isolated way to analyze malware without affecting the organization's network. An online service can provide a sandbox environment without requiring the security analyst to set up a virtual host or use an RDP session. Disconnecting and using an existing infected asset is risky and may not provide accurate results.

Reference: Malware Analysis: Steps & Examples, Dynamic Analysis

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asked 02/10/2024
Martin Schwarz
35 questions
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