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CAS-004: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
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The CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) (CAS-004) exam is a crucial certification for anyone aiming to advance their career in cybersecurity. Our topic is your ultimate resource for CAS-004 practice test shared by individuals who have successfully passed the exam. These practice tests provide real-world scenarios and invaluable insights to help you ace your preparation.
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Key Features of CAS-004 Practice Test:
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Exam Number: CAS-004
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+)
Length of Test: 165 minutes
Exam Format: Multiple-choice and performance-based questions.
Exam Language: English
Number of Questions in the Actual Exam: Maximum of 90 questions
Passing Score: CASP+ is a pass/fail exam. There is no scaled score.
Use the shared CompTIA CAS-004 Practice Test to ensure you’re fully prepared for your certification exam. Start practicing today and take a significant step towards achieving your certification goals!
Related questions
Ransomware encrypted the entire human resources fileshare for a large financial institution. Security operations personnel were unaware of the activity until it was too late to stop it. The restoration will take approximately four hours, and the last backup occurred 48 hours ago. The management team has indicated that the RPO for a disaster recovery event for this data classification is 24 hours.
Based on RPO requirements, which of the following recommendations should the management team make?
Explanation:
Increasing the frequency of backups and creating SIEM (security information and event management) alerts for IOCs (indicators of compromise) are the best recommendations that the management team can make based on RPO (recovery point objective) requirements. RPO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that can occur during a disaster recovery event. Increasing the frequency of backups can reduce the amount of data loss that can occur, as it can create more recent copies or snapshots of the data. Creating SIEM alerts for IOCs can help detect and respond to ransomware attacks, as it can collect, correlate, and analyze security events and data from various sources and generate alerts based on predefined rules or thresholds. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as encourage more ransomware attacks or expose the company to legal or ethical issues. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and making the human resources fileshare read-only are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as affect the normal operations or functionality of the fileshare. Decreasing the frequency of backups and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as increase the risk of losing data due to less frequent backups or unreliable decryption. Verified
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rpo https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
An internal security assessor identified large gaps in a company's IT asset inventory system during a monthly asset review. The assessor is aware of an external audit that is underway. In an effort to avoid external findings, the assessor chooses not to report the gaps in the inventory system. Which of the following legal considerations is the assessor directly violating?
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A global organization's Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has been asked to analyze the risks involved in a plan to move the organization's current MPLS-based WAN network to use commodity
Internet and SD-WAN hardware. The SD-WAN provider is currently highly regarded but Is a regional provider. Which of the following is MOST likely identified as a potential risk by the CISO?
Explanation:
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a technology that allows organizations to use multiple, low-cost Internet connections to create a secure and dynamic WAN. SD-WAN can provide
benefits such as lower costs, higher performance, and easier management compared to traditional WAN technologies, such as MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching).
However, SD-WAN also introduces some potential risks, such as:
The reliability and security of the Internet connections, which may vary depending on the location, provider, and traffic conditions.
The compatibility and interoperability of the SD-WAN hardware and software, which may come from different vendors or use different standards.
The availability and quality of the SD-WAN provider’s support, which may depend on the provider’s size, reputation, and outsourcing practices.
In this case, the CISO would most likely identify the risk that the SD-WAN provider uses a third party for support, because this could:
Affect the organization’s ability to resolve issues or request changes in a timely and effective manner.
Expose the organization’s network data and configuration to unauthorized or malicious parties.
Increase the complexity and uncertainty of the SD-WAN service level agreement (SLA) and contract terms.
An organization is designing a network architecture that must meet the following requirements:
Users will only be able to access predefined services.
Each user will have a unique allow list defined for access.
The system will construct one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically.
Which of the following architectural designs should the organization use to meet these requirements?
Explanation:
Microsegmentation enabled by software-defined networking is an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically. Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on granular criteria, such as applications, services, users, or devices. Microsegmentation can provide fine-grained access control and isolation for network resources, preventing unauthorized or lateral movements within the network. Software-defined networking is a technology that decouples the control plane from the data plane in network devices, allowing centralized and programmable management of network functions and policies. Software-defined networking can enable microsegmentation by dynamically creating and enforcing network segments or zones based on predefined rules or policies. Peer-to-peer secure communications enabled by mobile applications is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as peer-to-peer secure communications is a technique that allows direct and encrypted communication between two or more parties without relying on a central server or intermediary. Proxied application data connections enabled by API gateways is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as proxied application data connections is a technique that allows indirect and filtered communication between applications or services through an intermediary device or service that can modify or monitor the traffic. VLANs (virtual local area networks) enabled by network infrastructure devices is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as VLANs are logical segments of a physical network that can group devices or users based on common criteria, such as function, department, or location. Verified
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-microsegmentation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
An application server was recently upgraded to prefer TLS 1.3, and now users are unable to connect their clients to the server. Attempts to reproduce the error are confirmed, and clients are reporting the following:
ERR_SSL_VERSION_OR_CIPHER_MISMATCH
Which of the following is MOST likely the root cause?
Explanation:
The client application being configured to use RC4 is the most likely root cause of why users are unable to connect their clients to the server that prefers TLS 1.3. RC4 is an outdated and insecure symmetric-key encryption algorithm that has been deprecated and removed from TLS 1.3, which is the latest version of the protocol that provides secure communication between clients and servers. If the client application is configured to use RC4, it will not be able to negotiate a secure connection with the server that prefers TLS 1.3, resulting in an error message such as ERR_SSL_VERSION_OR_CIPHER_MISMATCH. The client application testing PFS (perfect forward secrecy) is not a likely root cause of why users are unable to connect their clients to the server that prefers TLS 1.3, as PFS is a property that ensures that session keys derived from a set of long-term keys cannot be compromised if one of them is compromised in the future. PFS is supported and recommended by TLS 1.3, which uses ephemeral Diffie-Hellman or elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman key exchange methods to achieve PFS. The client application being configured to use ECDHE (elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman ephemeral) is not a likely root cause of why users are unable to connect their clients to the server that prefers TLS 1.3, as ECDHE is a key exchange method that provides PFS and high performance by using elliptic curve cryptography to generate ephemeral keys for each session. ECDHE is supported and recommended by TLS 1.3, which uses ECDHE as the default key exchange method. The client application being configured to use AES-256 in GCM (Galois/Counter Mode) is not a likely root cause of why users are unable to connect their clients to the server that prefers TLS 1.3, as AES-256 in GCM is an encryption mode that provides confidentiality and integrity by using AES with a 256-bit key and GCM as an authenticated encryption mode. AES-256 in GCM is supported and recommended by TLS 1.3, which uses AES-256 in GCM as one of the default encryption modes. Verified
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-tls-13 https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
A security analyst is concerned that a malicious piece of code was downloaded on a Linux system. After some research, the analyst determines that the suspected piece of code is performing a lot of input/output (I/O) on the disk drive.
Based on the output above, from which of the following process IDs can the analyst begin an investigation?
Explanation:
The process ID 87 can be the starting point for an investigation of a possible buffer overflow attack, as it shows a high percentage of CPU utilization (99.7%) and a suspicious command name (graphic.linux_randomization.prg). A buffer overflow attack is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in an application or system that allows an attacker to write data beyond the allocated buffer size, potentially overwriting memory segments and executing malicious code. A high CPU utilization could indicate that the process is performing intensive or abnormal operations, such as a buffer overflow attack. A suspicious command name could indicate that the process is trying to disguise itself or evade detection, such as by mimicking a legitimate program or using random characters. The other process IDs do not show signs of a buffer overflow attack, as they have low CPU utilization and normal command names. Verified
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-buffer-overflow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
An loT device implements an encryption module built within its SoC where the asymmetric private key has been defined in a write-once read-many portion of the SoC hardware Which of the following should the loT manufacture do if the private key is compromised?
Due to locality and budget constraints, an organization's satellite office has a lower bandwidth allocation than other offices in the organization. As a result, the local security infrastructure staff is assessing architectural options that will help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility.
Which of the following would be the BEST option to implement?
Explanation:
SD-WAN (software-defined wide area network) vertical heterogeneity is a technique that can help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility. SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity involves using different types of network links (such as broadband, cellular, or satellite) for different types of traffic (such as voice, video, or data) based on their performance and security requirements. This can optimize the network efficiency and reliability, as well as provide granular visibility and control over traffic flows. Distributed connection allocation is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for distributing network connections among multiple servers or devices. Local caching is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for storing frequently accessed data locally to reduce latency or load times. Content delivery network is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. Verified
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-sd-wan https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide
A company is outsourcing to an MSSP that performs managed detection and response services. The MSSP requires a server to be placed inside the network as a log aggregate and allows remote access to MSSP analyst. Critical devices send logs to the log aggregator, where data is stored for 12 months locally before being archived to a multitenant cloud. The data is then sent from the log aggregate to a public IP address in the MSSP datacenter for analysis.
A security engineer is concerned about the security of the solution and notes the following.
* The critical devise send cleartext logs to the aggregator.
* The log aggregator utilize full disk encryption.
* The log aggregator sends to the analysis server via port 80.
* MSSP analysis utilize an SSL VPN with MFA to access the log aggregator remotely.
* The data is compressed and encrypted prior to being achieved in the cloud.
Which of the following should be the engineer's GREATEST concern?
Explanation:
Encryption of data in transit should be the engineer's greatest concern regarding the security of the solution. Data in transit refers to data that is being transferred over a network or between devices. If data in transit is not encrypted, it can be intercepted, modified, or stolen by attackers who can exploit vulnerabilities in the network protocols or devices. The solution in the question sends logs from the critical devices to the aggregator in cleartext and from the aggregator to the analysis server via port 80, which are both insecure methods that expose the data to potential attacks. Verified
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-019
Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?
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