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A security analyst is concerned that a malicious piece of code was downloaded on a Linux system. After some research, the analyst determines that the suspected piece of code is performing a lot of input/output (I/O) on the disk drive.

Based on the output above, from which of the following process IDs can the analyst begin an investigation?

A.
65
A.
65
Answers
B.
77
B.
77
Answers
C.
83
C.
83
Answers
D.
87
D.
87
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The process ID 87 can be the starting point for an investigation of a possible buffer overflow attack, as it shows a high percentage of CPU utilization (99.7%) and a suspicious command name (graphic.linux_randomization.prg). A buffer overflow attack is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in an application or system that allows an attacker to write data beyond the allocated buffer size, potentially overwriting memory segments and executing malicious code. A high CPU utilization could indicate that the process is performing intensive or abnormal operations, such as a buffer overflow attack. A suspicious command name could indicate that the process is trying to disguise itself or evade detection, such as by mimicking a legitimate program or using random characters. The other process IDs do not show signs of a buffer overflow attack, as they have low CPU utilization and normal command names. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-buffer-overflow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Which of the following are risks associated with vendor lock-in? (Choose two.)

A.
The client can seamlessly move data.
A.
The client can seamlessly move data.
Answers
B.
The vendor can change product offerings.
B.
The vendor can change product offerings.
Answers
C.
The client receives a sufficient level of service.
C.
The client receives a sufficient level of service.
Answers
D.
The client experiences decreased quality of service.
D.
The client experiences decreased quality of service.
Answers
E.
The client can leverage a multicloud approach.
E.
The client can leverage a multicloud approach.
Answers
F.
The client experiences increased interoperability.
F.
The client experiences increased interoperability.
Answers
Suggested answer: B, D

An organization recently experienced a ransomware attack. The security team leader is concerned about the attack reoccurring. However, no further security measures have been implemented.

Which of the following processes can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations?

A.
Detection
A.
Detection
Answers
B.
Remediation
B.
Remediation
Answers
C.
Preparation
C.
Preparation
Answers
D.
Recovery
D.
Recovery
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Preparation is the process that can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations after a security incident, such as a ransomware attack. Preparation involves planning and implementing security measures to prevent or mitigate future incidents, such as by updating policies, procedures, or controls, conducting training or awareness campaigns, or acquiring new tools or resources. Detection is the process of discovering or identifying security incidents, not preventing them. Remediation is the process of containing or resolving security incidents, not preventing them. Recovery is the process of restoring normal operations after security incidents, not preventing them. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-incident-response https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A security architect is implementing a web application that uses a database back end. Prior to the production, the architect is concerned about the possibility of XSS attacks and wants to identify security controls that could be put in place to prevent these attacks.

Which of the following sources could the architect consult to address this security concern?

A.
SDLC
A.
SDLC
Answers
B.
OVAL
B.
OVAL
Answers
C.
IEEE
C.
IEEE
Answers
D.
OWASP
D.
OWASP
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

OWASP is a resource used to identify attack vectors and their mitigations, OVAL is a vulnerability assessment standard

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a source that the security architect could consult to address the security concern of XSS (cross-site scripting) attacks on a web application that uses a database back end. OWASP is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications and services. OWASP publishes the OWASP Top 10 list of common web application vulnerabilities and risks, which includes XSS attacks, as well as recommendations and best practices for preventing or mitigating them. SDLC (software development life cycle) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a framework for developing software in an organized and efficient manner. OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities. IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of engineering and technology. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-owasp https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A security engineer was auditing an organization's current software development practice and discovered that multiple open-source libraries were Integrated into the organization's software. The organization currently performs SAST and DAST on the software it develops.

Which of the following should the organization incorporate into the SDLC to ensure the security of the open-source libraries?

A.
Perform additional SAST/DAST on the open-source libraries.
A.
Perform additional SAST/DAST on the open-source libraries.
Answers
B.
Implement the SDLC security guidelines.
B.
Implement the SDLC security guidelines.
Answers
C.
Track the library versions and monitor the CVE website for related vulnerabilities.
C.
Track the library versions and monitor the CVE website for related vulnerabilities.
Answers
D.
Perform unit testing of the open-source libraries.
D.
Perform unit testing of the open-source libraries.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Tracking the library versions and monitoring the CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) website for related vulnerabilities is an activity that the organization should incorporate into the SDLC (software development life cycle) to ensure the security of the open-source libraries integrated into its software. Tracking the library versions can help identify outdated or unsupported libraries that may contain vulnerabilities or bugs. Monitoring the CVE website can help discover publicly known vulnerabilities in the open-source libraries and their severity ratings. Performing additional SAST/DAST (static application security testing/dynamic application security testing) on the open-source libraries may not be feasible or effective for ensuring their security, as SAST/DAST are mainly focused on testing the source code or functionality of the software, not the libraries. Implementing the SDLC security guidelines is a general activity that the organization should follow for developing secure software, but it does not specifically address the security of the open-source libraries. Performing unit testing of the open-source libraries may not be feasible or effective for ensuring their security, as unit testing is mainly focused on testing the individual components or modules of the software, not the libraries. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cve https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A security analyst is investigating a possible buffer overflow attack. The following output was found on a user's workstation:

graphic.linux_randomization.prg

Which of the following technologies would mitigate the manipulation of memory segments?

A.
NX bit
A.
NX bit
Answers
B.
ASLR
B.
ASLR
Answers
C.
DEP
C.
DEP
Answers
D.
HSM
D.
HSM
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

An e-commerce company is running a web server on premises, and the resource utilization is usually less than 30%. During the last two holiday seasons, the server experienced performance issues because of too many connections, and several customers were not able to finalize purchase orders. The company is looking to change the server configuration to avoid this kind of performance issue.

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution?

A.
Move the server to a cloud provider.
A.
Move the server to a cloud provider.
Answers
B.
Change the operating system.
B.
Change the operating system.
Answers
C.
Buy a new server and create an active-active cluster.
C.
Buy a new server and create an active-active cluster.
Answers
D.
Upgrade the server with a new one.
D.
Upgrade the server with a new one.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Moving the server to a cloud provider is the most cost-effective solution to avoid performance issues caused by too many connections during peak seasons, such as holidays. Moving the server to a cloud provider can provide scalability, elasticity, and availability for the web server, as it can adjust its resources and capacity according to the demand and traffic. Moving the server to a cloud provider can also reduce operational and maintenance costs, as the cloud provider can handle the infrastructure and security aspects. Changing the operating system may not help avoid performance issues, as it could introduce compatibility or functionality problems, and it may not address the resource or capacity limitations. Buying a new server and creating an active-active cluster may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as complex configuration and management tasks. Upgrading the server with a new one may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as migration and testing efforts. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-computing https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A company has decided to purchase a license for software that is used to operate a mission-critical process. The third-party developer is new to the industry but is delivering what the company needs at this time.

Which of the following BEST describes the reason why utilizing a source code escrow will reduce the operational risk to the company if the third party stops supporting the application?

A.
The company will have access to the latest version to continue development.
A.
The company will have access to the latest version to continue development.
Answers
B.
The company will be able to force the third-party developer to continue support.
B.
The company will be able to force the third-party developer to continue support.
Answers
C.
The company will be able to manage the third-party developer's development process.
C.
The company will be able to manage the third-party developer's development process.
Answers
D.
The company will be paid by the third-party developer to hire a new development team.
D.
The company will be paid by the third-party developer to hire a new development team.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Utilizing a source code escrow will reduce the operational risk to the company if the third party stops supporting the application, as it will provide access to the latest version of the source code to continue development. A source code escrow is an agreement between a software developer and a client that involves depositing the source code of a software product with a third-party escrow agent. The escrow agent can release the source code to the client under certain conditions specified in the agreement, such as bankruptcy, termination, or breach of contract by the developer. The company will not be able to force the third-party developer to continue support, manage their development process, or pay them to hire a new development team by utilizing a source code escrow. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-source-code-escrow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A satellite communications ISP frequently experiences outages and degraded modes of operation over one of its legacy satellite links due to the use of deprecated hardware and software. Three days per week, on average, a contracted company must follow a checklist of 16 different high-latency commands that must be run in serial to restore nominal performance. The ISP wants this process to be automated.

Which of the following techniques would be BEST suited for this requirement?

A.
Deploy SOAR utilities and runbooks.
A.
Deploy SOAR utilities and runbooks.
Answers
B.
Replace the associated hardware.
B.
Replace the associated hardware.
Answers
C.
Provide the contractors with direct access to satellite telemetry data.
C.
Provide the contractors with direct access to satellite telemetry data.
Answers
D.
Reduce link latency on the affected ground and satellite segments.
D.
Reduce link latency on the affected ground and satellite segments.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Deploying SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) utilities and runbooks is the best technique for automating the process of restoring nominal performance on a legacy satellite link due to degraded modes of operation caused by deprecated hardware and software.

A company processes data subject to NDAs with partners that define the processing and storage constraints for the covered data. The agreements currently do not permit moving the covered data to the cloud, and the company would like to renegotiate the terms of the agreements.

Which of the following would MOST likely help the company gain consensus to move the data to the cloud?


A.
Designing data protection schemes to mitigate the risk of loss due to multitenancy
A.
Designing data protection schemes to mitigate the risk of loss due to multitenancy
Answers
B.
Implementing redundant stores and services across diverse CSPs for high availability
B.
Implementing redundant stores and services across diverse CSPs for high availability
Answers
C.
Emulating OS and hardware architectures to blur operations from CSP view
C.
Emulating OS and hardware architectures to blur operations from CSP view
Answers
D.
Purchasing managed FIM services to alert on detected modifications to covered data
D.
Purchasing managed FIM services to alert on detected modifications to covered data
Answers
Suggested answer: A
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