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An internal security assessor identified large gaps in a company's IT asset inventory system during a monthly asset review. The assessor is aware of an external audit that is underway. In an effort to avoid external findings, the assessor chooses not to report the gaps in the inventory system. Which of the following legal considerations is the assessor directly violating?

A.
Due care
A.
Due care
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B.
Due diligence
B.
Due diligence
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C.
Due process
C.
Due process
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D.
Due notice
D.
Due notice
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Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Due care refers to the effort made by an ordinarily prudent or reasonable party to avoid harm to another party. By not reporting the gaps in the inventory system, the assessor is neglecting their responsibility and not exercising the due care that is expected of them, which could lead to legal ramifications for non-compliance or other security breaches.

A security architect must mitigate the risks from what is suspected to be an exposed, private cryptographic key. Which of the following is the best step to take?

A.
Revoke the certificate.
A.
Revoke the certificate.
Answers
B.
Inform all the users of the certificate.
B.
Inform all the users of the certificate.
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C.
Contact the company's Chief Information Security Officer.
C.
Contact the company's Chief Information Security Officer.
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D.
Disable the website using the suspected certificate.
D.
Disable the website using the suspected certificate.
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E.
Alert the root CA.
E.
Alert the root CA.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

In the context of a private cryptographic key suspected to be exposed, the best immediate action is to revoke the certificate associated with that key. Revoking the certificate ensures that it cannot be used to establish new secure sessions, which prevents attackers from using the potentially compromised key to impersonate or decrypt communications. The revocation process typically involves updating the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or leveraging the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), both of which are used by clients to check the validity of certificates.

Signed applications reduce risks by:

A.
encrypting the application's data on the device.
A.
encrypting the application's data on the device.
Answers
B.
requiring the developer to use code-level hardening techniques.
B.
requiring the developer to use code-level hardening techniques.
Answers
C.
providing assurance that the application is using unmodified source code.
C.
providing assurance that the application is using unmodified source code.
Answers
D.
costing the developer money to publish, which reduces the likelihood of malicious intent.
D.
costing the developer money to publish, which reduces the likelihood of malicious intent.
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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Signed applications ensure the integrity of the application by verifying that the source code has not been tampered with. Digital signatures provide a cryptographic guarantee that the software is exactly as the developer released it.

After a server was compromised an incident responder looks at log files to determine the attack vector that was used The incident responder reviews the web server log files from the time before an unexpected SSH session began:

Which of the following is the most likely vulnerability that was exploited based on the log files?

A.
Directory traversal revealed the hashed SSH password, which was used to access the server.
A.
Directory traversal revealed the hashed SSH password, which was used to access the server.
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B.
A SQL injection was used during the ordering process to compromise the database server
B.
A SQL injection was used during the ordering process to compromise the database server
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C.
The root password was easily guessed and used as a parameter lo open a reverse shell
C.
The root password was easily guessed and used as a parameter lo open a reverse shell
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D.
An outdated third-party PHP plug-in was vulnerable to a known remote code execution
D.
An outdated third-party PHP plug-in was vulnerable to a known remote code execution
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Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The logs indicate a directory traversal attempt (/../..//.etc/shadow), which is a type of attack that exploits insufficient security validation/sanitization of user-supplied input file names, so that characters representing 'traverse to parent directory' are passed through to the file APIs. The /etc/shadow file on Unix systems contains password hashes. If an attacker successfully exploited this vulnerability, they could potentially access the hashed SSH password. This information could then be used to gain unauthorized access to the server if the hash was cracked.

A network security engineer is designing a three-tier web architecture that will allow a third-party vendor to perform the following audit functions within the organization's cloud environment

* Review communication between all infrastructure endpoints

* Identify unauthorized and malicious data patterns

* Perform automated, risk-mitigating configuration changes

Which of the following should the network security engineer include in the design to address these requirements?

A.
Network edge NIPS
A.
Network edge NIPS
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B.
Centralized syslog
B.
Centralized syslog
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C.
Traffic mirroring
C.
Traffic mirroring
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D.
Network flow
D.
Network flow
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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Traffic mirroring, also known as port mirroring or SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer), involves creating a copy of the actual network traffic for independent analysis. This would allow the third-party vendor to review communications between infrastructure endpoints, identify unauthorized and malicious data patterns, and perform automated, risk-mitigating configuration changes without impacting the live environment. This is used in network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) and for traffic analysis purposes.

A PKI engineer is defining certificate templates for an organization's CA and would like to ensure at least two of the possible SAN certificate extension fields populate for documentation purposes. Which of the following are explicit options within this extension? (Select two).

A.
Type
A.
Type
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B.
Email
B.
Email
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C.
OCSP responder
C.
OCSP responder
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D.
Registration authority
D.
Registration authority
Answers
E.
Common Name
E.
Common Name
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F.
DNS name
F.
DNS name
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Suggested answer: B, F

Explanation:

The SAN (Subject Alternative Name) field in a certificate can include multiple types of entries, including DNS names and email addresses. These are explicit options within the SAN extension, allowing a single certificate to be valid for multiple domain names and email addresses. This is often used in multi-domain SSL certificates, where a single certificate needs to be valid for multiple subdomains or different domain names.

A hospital has fallen behind with patching known vulnerabilities due to concerns that patches may cause disruptions in the availability of data and impact patient care. The hospital does not have a tracking solution in place to audit whether systems have been updated or to track the length of time between notification of the weakness and patch completion Since tracking is not in place the hospital lacks accountability with regard to who is responsible for these activities and the timeline of patching efforts. Which of the following should the hospital do first to mitigate this risk?

A.
Complete a vulnerability analysis
A.
Complete a vulnerability analysis
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B.
Obtain guidance from the health ISAC
B.
Obtain guidance from the health ISAC
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C.
Purchase a ticketing system for auditing efforts
C.
Purchase a ticketing system for auditing efforts
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D.
Ensure CVEs are current
D.
Ensure CVEs are current
Answers
E.
Train administrators on why patching is important
E.
Train administrators on why patching is important
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The first step in mitigating the risk associated with delayed patching is to conduct a vulnerability analysis. This process involves identifying, categorizing, and assessing the vulnerabilities within the hospital's IT infrastructure. By understanding the specific vulnerabilities and their potential impact on patient care and data availability, the hospital can prioritize patching efforts effectively and develop a strategy that minimizes disruptions while ensuring critical systems remain secure.

Which of the following is record-level encryption commonly used to do?

A.
Protect database fields
A.
Protect database fields
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B.
Protect individual files
B.
Protect individual files
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C.
Encrypt individual packets
C.
Encrypt individual packets
Answers
D.
Encrypt the master boot record
D.
Encrypt the master boot record
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Record-level encryption is primarily used to protect sensitive information stored in specific fields within a database, such as personal data, financial information, or health records. This encryption method ensures that individual data entries are encrypted, providing a high level of security and privacy by making the data unreadable to unauthorized users or in the event of a database breach, while still allowing the database to be functional for authorized queries and operations.

A security engineer is concerned about the threat of side-channel attacks The company experienced a past attack that degraded parts of a SCADA system, causing a fluctuation to 20,000rpm from its normal operating range As a result, the part deteriorated more quickly than the mean time to failure A further investigation revealed the attacker was able to determine the acceptable rpm range, and the malware would then fluctuate the rpm until the pan failed Which of the following solutions would be best to prevent a side-channel attack in the future?

A.
Installing online hardware sensors
A.
Installing online hardware sensors
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B.
Air gapping important ICS and machines
B.
Air gapping important ICS and machines
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C.
Implementing a HIDS
C.
Implementing a HIDS
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D.
Installing a SIEM agent on the endpoint
D.
Installing a SIEM agent on the endpoint
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Air gapping, which means physically isolating a secure network from unsecured networks, including the public internet, is one of the most effective ways to prevent side-channel attacks. By creating an air gap, you remove the pathways that an attacker might exploit to gain unauthorized access to sensitive systems and manipulate them, as in the case of the SCADA system mentioned.

During a network defense engagement, a red team is able to edit the following registry key:

Which of the following tools is the red team using to perform this action?

A.
PowerShell
A.
PowerShell
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B.
SCAP scanner
B.
SCAP scanner
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C.
Network vulnerability scanner
C.
Network vulnerability scanner
Answers
D.
Fuzzer
D.
Fuzzer
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

PowerShell is a versatile scripting language that can be used to automate administrative tasks and configurations on Windows machines. It has the capability to edit registry keys, which is what the red team appears to have done based on the provided information. PowerShell is a common tool used by both system administrators and attackers (in the form of a red team during penetration testing).

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