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An application developer is including third-party background security fixes in an application. The fixes seem to resolve a currently identified security issue. However, when the application is released to the public, report come In that a previously vulnerability has returned. Which of the following should the developer integrate into the process to BEST prevent this type of behavior?

A.
Peer review
A.
Peer review
Answers
B.
Regression testing
B.
Regression testing
Answers
C.
User acceptance
C.
User acceptance
Answers
D.
Dynamic analysis
D.
Dynamic analysis
Answers
Suggested answer: A

A security analyst is validating the MAC policy on a set of Android devices. The policy was written to ensure non-critical applications are unable to access certain resources. When reviewing dmesg, the analyst notes many entries such as:

Despite the deny message, this action was still permit following is the MOST likely fix for this issue?

A.
Add the objects of concern to the default context.
A.
Add the objects of concern to the default context.
Answers
B.
Set the devices to enforcing
B.
Set the devices to enforcing
Answers
C.
Create separate domain and context files for irc.
C.
Create separate domain and context files for irc.
Answers
D.
Rebuild the policy, reinstall, and test.
D.
Rebuild the policy, reinstall, and test.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

An organization's hunt team thinks a persistent threats exists and already has a foothold in the enterprise network.

Which of the following techniques would be BEST for the hunt team to use to entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity?

A.
Deploy a SOAR tool.
A.
Deploy a SOAR tool.
Answers
B.
Modify user password history and length requirements.
B.
Modify user password history and length requirements.
Answers
C.
Apply new isolation and segmentation schemes.
C.
Apply new isolation and segmentation schemes.
Answers
D.
Implement decoy files on adjacent hosts.
D.
Implement decoy files on adjacent hosts.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Implementing decoy files on adjacent hosts is a technique that can entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it can lure them into accessing fake or irrelevant data that can trigger an alert or reveal their presence. Decoy files are also known as honeyfiles or honeypots, and they are part of deception technology. Deploying a SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) tool may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as SOAR is mainly focused on automating and streamlining security operations, not deceiving attackers. Modifying user password history and length requirements may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could affect legitimate users and not reveal the attacker's actions. Applying new isolation and segmentation schemes may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could limit their access and movement, but not expose their presence. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-deception-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A junior developer is informed about the impact of new malware on an Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) CPU, and the code must be fixed accordingly. Based on the debug, the malware is able to insert itself in another process memory location.

Which of the following technologies can the developer enable on the ARM architecture to prevent this type of malware?

A.
Execute never
A.
Execute never
Answers
B.
No-execute
B.
No-execute
Answers
C.
Total memory encryption
C.
Total memory encryption
Answers
D.
Virtual memory encryption
D.
Virtual memory encryption
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified

Reference:

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/execute-never-bits

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/Execute-Never

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-Architecture--VMSA-/Memory-access-control/Execute-never-restrictions-on-instruction-fetching

A company is implementing SSL inspection. During the next six months, multiple web applications that will be separated out with subdomains will be deployed.

Which of the following will allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate deployments?

A.
Include all available cipher suites.
A.
Include all available cipher suites.
Answers
B.
Create a wildcard certificate.
B.
Create a wildcard certificate.
Answers
C.
Use a third-party CA.
C.
Use a third-party CA.
Answers
D.
Implement certificate pinning.
D.
Implement certificate pinning.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A wildcard certificate is a certificate that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, such as *.example.com. This would allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate deployments, as one wildcard certificate can cover all the subdomains that will be separated out with subdomains. Including all available cipher suites may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as cipher suites are used for negotiating encryption and authentication algorithms, not for verifying certificates. Using a third-party CA (certificate authority) may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as a third-party CA is an entity that issues and validates certificates, not a type of certificate. Implementing certificate pinning may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as certificate pinning is a technique that hardcodes the expected certificate or public key in the application code, not a type of certificate. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-wildcard-certificate https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A small business requires a low-cost approach to theft detection for the audio recordings it produces and sells.

Which of the following techniques will MOST likely meet the business's needs?

A.
Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files
A.
Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files
Answers
B.
Adding identifying filesystem metadata to the digital audio files
B.
Adding identifying filesystem metadata to the digital audio files
Answers
C.
Implementing steganography
C.
Implementing steganography
Answers
D.
Purchasing and installing a DRM suite
D.
Purchasing and installing a DRM suite
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Steganography is a technique that can hide data within other files or media, such as images, audio, or video. This can provide a low-cost approach to theft detection for the audio recordings produced and sold by the small business, as it can embed identifying information or watermarks in the audio files that can reveal their origin or ownership. Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files may not be feasible or effective for theft detection, as it could consume a lot of bandwidth and resources, and it may not detect hidden data within encrypted packets. Adding identifying filesystem metadata to the digital audio files may not provide enough protection for theft detection, as filesystem metadata can be easily modified or removed by unauthorized parties. Purchasing and installing a DRM (digital rights management) suite may not be a low-cost approach for theft detection, as it could involve licensing fees and hardware requirements. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Clients are reporting slowness when attempting to access a series of load-balanced APIs that do not require authentication. The servers that host the APIs are showing heavy CPU utilization. No alerts are found on the WAFs sitting in front of the APIs.

Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to BEST remedy the performance issues in a timely manner?

A.
Implement rate limiting on the API.
A.
Implement rate limiting on the API.
Answers
B.
Implement geoblocking on the WAF.
B.
Implement geoblocking on the WAF.
Answers
C.
Implement OAuth 2.0 on the API.
C.
Implement OAuth 2.0 on the API.
Answers
D.
Implement input validation on the API.
D.
Implement input validation on the API.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

An organization is considering a BYOD standard to support remote working. The first iteration of the solution will utilize only approved collaboration applications and the ability to move corporate data between those applications. The security team has concerns about the following:

Unstructured data being exfiltrated after an employee leaves the organization

Data being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials

Sensitive information in emails being exfiltrated

Which of the following solutions should the security team implement to mitigate the risk of data loss?

A.
Mobile device management, remote wipe, and data loss detection
A.
Mobile device management, remote wipe, and data loss detection
Answers
B.
Conditional access, DoH, and full disk encryption
B.
Conditional access, DoH, and full disk encryption
Answers
C.
Mobile application management, MFA, and DRM
C.
Mobile application management, MFA, and DRM
Answers
D.
Certificates, DLP, and geofencing
D.
Certificates, DLP, and geofencing
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data within them on personal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated by restricting the ability to move, copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying. Verified

Reference:

https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html

https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate

A Chief Information Officer is considering migrating all company data to the cloud to save money on expensive SAN storage.

Which of the following is a security concern that will MOST likely need to be addressed during migration?

A.
Latency
A.
Latency
Answers
B.
Data exposure
B.
Data exposure
Answers
C.
Data loss
C.
Data loss
Answers
D.
Data dispersion
D.
Data dispersion
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Data exposure is a security concern that will most likely need to be addressed during migration of all company data to the cloud, as it could involve sensitive or confidential data being accessed or disclosed by unauthorized parties. Data exposure could occur due to misconfigured cloud services, insecure data transfers, insider threats, or malicious attacks. Data exposure could also result in compliance violations, reputational damage, or legal liabilities. Latency is not a security concern, but a performance concern that could affect the speed or quality of data access or transmission. Data loss is not a security concern, but a availability concern that could affect the integrity or recovery of data. Data dispersion is not a security concern, but a management concern that could affect the visibility or control of data. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exposure https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Due to locality and budget constraints, an organization's satellite office has a lower bandwidth allocation than other offices in the organization. As a result, the local security infrastructure staff is assessing architectural options that will help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility.

Which of the following would be the BEST option to implement?

A.
Distributed connection allocation
A.
Distributed connection allocation
Answers
B.
Local caching
B.
Local caching
Answers
C.
Content delivery network
C.
Content delivery network
Answers
D.
SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity
D.
SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

SD-WAN (software-defined wide area network) vertical heterogeneity is a technique that can help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility. SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity involves using different types of network links (such as broadband, cellular, or satellite) for different types of traffic (such as voice, video, or data) based on their performance and security requirements. This can optimize the network efficiency and reliability, as well as provide granular visibility and control over traffic flows. Distributed connection allocation is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for distributing network connections among multiple servers or devices. Local caching is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for storing frequently accessed data locally to reduce latency or load times. Content delivery network is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-sd-wan https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

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