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An energy company is required to report the average pressure of natural gas used over the past quarter. A PLC sends data to a historian server that creates the required reports.

Which of the following historian server locations will allow the business to get the required reports in an and IT environment?

A.
In the environment, use a VPN from the IT environment into the environment.
A.
In the environment, use a VPN from the IT environment into the environment.
Answers
B.
In the environment, allow IT traffic into the environment.
B.
In the environment, allow IT traffic into the environment.
Answers
C.
In the IT environment, allow PLCs to send data from the environment to the IT environment.
C.
In the IT environment, allow PLCs to send data from the environment to the IT environment.
Answers
D.
Use a screened subnet between the and IT environments.
D.
Use a screened subnet between the and IT environments.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such as (operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing the environment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise the environment. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Which of the following is a benefit of using steganalysis techniques in forensic response?

A.
Breaking a symmetric cipher used in secure voice communications
A.
Breaking a symmetric cipher used in secure voice communications
Answers
B.
Determining the frequency of unique attacks against DRM-protected media
B.
Determining the frequency of unique attacks against DRM-protected media
Answers
C.
Maintaining chain of custody for acquired evidence
C.
Maintaining chain of custody for acquired evidence
Answers
D.
Identifying least significant bit encoding of data in a .wav file
D.
Identifying least significant bit encoding of data in a .wav file
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can help forensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A new web server must comply with new secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. This includes mitigating the risk of an on-path attack. A security analyst is reviewing the following web server configuration:

Which of the following ciphers should the security analyst remove to support the business requirements?

A.
TLS_AES_128_CCM_8_SHA256
A.
TLS_AES_128_CCM_8_SHA256
Answers
B.
TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA
B.
TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA
Answers
C.
TLS_CHACHA20_POLY1305_SHA256
C.
TLS_CHACHA20_POLY1305_SHA256
Answers
D.
TLS_AES_128_GCM_SHA256
D.
TLS_AES_128_GCM_SHA256
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A security analyst notices a number of SIEM events that show the following activity:

Which of the following response actions should the analyst take FIRST?

A.
Disable powershell.exe on all Microsoft Windows endpoints.
A.
Disable powershell.exe on all Microsoft Windows endpoints.
Answers
B.
Restart Microsoft Windows Defender.
B.
Restart Microsoft Windows Defender.
Answers
C.
Configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154.
C.
Configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154.
Answers
D.
Disable local administrator privileges on the endpoints.
D.
Disable local administrator privileges on the endpoints.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The SIEM events show that powershell.exe was executed on multiple endpoints with an outbound connection to 40.90.23.154, which is an IP address associated with malicious activity. This could indicate a malware infection or a command-and-control channel. The best response action is to configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154, which would prevent further communication with the malicious IP address. Disabling powershell.exe on all endpoints may not be feasible or effective, as it could affect legitimate operations and not remove the malware. Restarting Microsoft Windows Defender may not detect or stop the malware, as it could have bypassed or disabled it. Disabling local administrator privileges on the endpoints may not prevent the malware from running or communicating, as it could have escalated privileges or used other methods. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-forward-proxy https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A technician is reviewing the logs and notices a large number of files were transferred to remote sites over the course of three months. This activity then stopped. The files were transferred via TLS-protected HTTP sessions from systems that do not send traffic to those sites.

The technician will define this threat as:

A.
a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
A.
a decrypting RSA using obsolete and weakened encryption attack.
Answers
B.
a zero-day attack.
B.
a zero-day attack.
Answers
C.
an advanced persistent threat.
C.
an advanced persistent threat.
Answers
D.
an on-path attack.
D.
an on-path attack.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

An advanced persistent threat (APT) is a type of cyberattack that involves a stealthy and continuous process of compromising and exploiting a target system or network. An APT typically has a specific goal or objective, such as stealing sensitive data, disrupting operations, or sabotaging infrastructure. An APT can use various techniques to evade detection and maintain persistence, such as encryption, proxy servers, malware, etc. The scenario described in the question matches the characteristics of an APT.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-apt.html https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/advanced-persistent-threat-apt/

A security engineer thinks the development team has been hard-coding sensitive environment variables in its code.

Which of the following would BEST secure the company's CI/CD pipeline?

A.
Utilizing a trusted secrets manager
A.
Utilizing a trusted secrets manager
Answers
B.
Performing DAST on a weekly basis
B.
Performing DAST on a weekly basis
Answers
C.
Introducing the use of container orchestration
C.
Introducing the use of container orchestration
Answers
D.
Deploying instance tagging
D.
Deploying instance tagging
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A trusted secrets manager is a tool or service that securely stores and manages sensitive information, such as passwords, API keys, tokens, certificates, etc. A trusted secrets manager can help secure the company's CI/CD (Continuous Integration/Continuous Delivery) pipeline by preventing hard-coding sensitive environment variables in the code, which can expose them to unauthorized access or leakage. A trusted secrets manager can also enable encryption, rotation, auditing, and access control for the secrets.

Reference: https://www.hashicorp.com/resources/what-is-a-secret-manager https://dzone.com/articles/how-to-securely-manage-secrets-in-a-ci-cd-pipeline

A small company recently developed prototype technology for a military program. The company's security engineer is concerned about potential theft of the newly developed, proprietary information.

Which of the following should the security engineer do to BEST manage the threats proactively?

A.
Join an information-sharing community that is relevant to the company.
A.
Join an information-sharing community that is relevant to the company.
Answers
B.
Leverage the MITRE ATT&CK framework to map the TTR.
B.
Leverage the MITRE ATT&CK framework to map the TTR.
Answers
C.
Use OSINT techniques to evaluate and analyze the threats.
C.
Use OSINT techniques to evaluate and analyze the threats.
Answers
D.
Update security awareness training to address new threats, such as best practices for data security.
D.
Update security awareness training to address new threats, such as best practices for data security.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

An information-sharing community is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, and mitigation strategies related to cybersecurity. An information-sharing community can help the company proactively manage the threats of potential theft of its newly developed, proprietary information by providing timely and actionable insights, alerts, and recommendations. An information-sharing community can also enable collaboration and coordination among its members to enhance their collective defense and resilience.

Reference: https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-016 https://www.cisecurity.org/blog/what-is-an-information-sharing-community/

A security engineer has been asked to close all non-secure connections from the corporate network. The engineer is attempting to understand why the corporate UTM will not allow users to download email via IMAPS. The engineer formulates a theory and begins testing by creating the firewall ID 58, and users are able to download emails correctly by using IMAP instead. The network comprises three VLANs:

The security engineer looks at the UTM firewall rules and finds the following:

Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network?

A.
Contact the email service provider and ask if the company IP is blocked.
A.
Contact the email service provider and ask if the company IP is blocked.
Answers
B.
Confirm the email server certificate is installed on the corporate computers.
B.
Confirm the email server certificate is installed on the corporate computers.
Answers
C.
Make sure the UTM certificate is imported on the corporate computers.
C.
Make sure the UTM certificate is imported on the corporate computers.
Answers
D.
Create an IMAPS firewall rule to ensure email is allowed.
D.
Create an IMAPS firewall rule to ensure email is allowed.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

IMAPS (Internet Message Access Protocol Secure) is a protocol that allows users to access and manipulate email messages on a remote mail server over a secure connection. IMAPS uses SSL/TLS encryption to protect the communication between the client and the server. IMAPS uses port 993 by default. To ensure IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network, the security engineer should create an IMAPS firewall rule on the UTM (Unified Threat Management) device that allows traffic from VLAN 10 (Corporate Users) to VLAN 20 (Email Server) over port 993. The existing firewall rules do not allow this traffic, as they only allow HTTP (port 80), HTTPS (port 443), and SMTP (port 25).

Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2460/internet-message-access-protocol-secure-imaps https://www.sophos.com/en-us/support/knowledgebase/115145.aspx

A security analyst is reviewing network connectivity on a Linux workstation and examining the active TCP connections using the command line.

Which of the following commands would be the BEST to run to view only active Internet connections?

A.
sudo netstat -antu | grep ''LISTEN'' | awk '{print$5}'
A.
sudo netstat -antu | grep ''LISTEN'' | awk '{print$5}'
Answers
B.
sudo netstat -nlt -p | grep ''ESTABLISHED''
B.
sudo netstat -nlt -p | grep ''ESTABLISHED''
Answers
C.
sudo netstat -plntu | grep -v ''Foreign Address''
C.
sudo netstat -plntu | grep -v ''Foreign Address''
Answers
D.
sudo netstat -pnut -w | column -t -s $'\w'
D.
sudo netstat -pnut -w | column -t -s $'\w'
Answers
E.
sudo netstat -pnut | grep -P ^tcp
E.
sudo netstat -pnut | grep -P ^tcp
Answers
Suggested answer: E

Explanation:

The netstat command is a tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. The command has various options that can modify its output. The options used in the correct answer are:

p: Show the PID and name of the program to which each socket belongs.

n: Show numerical addresses instead of trying to determine symbolic host, port or user names.

u: Show only UDP connections.

t: Show only TCP connections.

The grep command is a tool that searches for a pattern in a file or input. The option used in the correct answer is:

P: Interpret the pattern as a Perl-compatible regular expression (PCRE).

The pattern used in the correct answer is ^tcp, which means any line that starts with tcp. This will filter out any UDP connections from the output.

The sudo command is a tool that allows a user to run programs with the security privileges of another user (usually the superuser or root). This is necessary to run the netstat command with the -p option, which requires root privileges.

The correct answer will show only active TCP connections with numerical addresses and program names, which can be considered as active Internet connections. The other answers will either show different types of connections (such as listening or local), use different options that are not relevant (such as -a, -l, -w, or -s), or use different commands that are not useful (such as awk or column).

Reference: https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man8/netstat.8.html https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man1/grep.1.html https://man7.org/linux/man-pages/man8/sudo.8.html

A company hired a third party to develop software as part of its strategy to be quicker to market. The company's policy outlines the following requirements:

https://i.postimg.cc/8P9sB3zx/image.png

The credentials used to publish production software to the container registry should be stored in a secure location.

Access should be restricted to the pipeline service account, without the ability for the third-party developer to read the credentials directly.

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation for storing and monitoring access to these shared credentials?

A.
TPM
A.
TPM
Answers
B.
Local secure password file
B.
Local secure password file
Answers
C.
MFA
C.
MFA
Answers
D.
Key vault
D.
Key vault
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A key vault is a service that provides secure storage and management of keys, secrets, and certificates. It can be used to store credentials used to publish production software to the container registry in a secure location, and restrict access to the pipeline service account without allowing the third-party developer to read the credentials directly. A TPM (trusted platform module) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing shared credentials. A local secure password file is a file that stores passwords in an encrypted format, but it is not as secure or scalable as a key vault. MFA (multi-factor authentication) is a method of verifying the identity of a user or device by requiring two or more factors, but it does not store credentials. Verified

Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-key-vault https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

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