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Question 365 - CS0-003 discussion

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A security analyst needs to develop a solution to protect a high-value asset from an exploit like a recent zero-day attack. Which of the following best describes this risk management strategy?

A.

Avoid

Answers
A.

Avoid

B.

Transfer

Answers
B.

Transfer

C.

Accept

Answers
C.

Accept

D.

Mitigate

Answers
D.

Mitigate

Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Comprehensive Detailed

The best approach to address the risk of a zero-day attack is mitigation. Here's an explanation of each option:

A . Avoid

Avoiding risk would mean discontinuing the use of the asset, which is not feasible for high-value assets that are essential to operations.

B . Transfer

Transferring risk would involve outsourcing or obtaining insurance, but this does not directly reduce the threat of a zero-day exploit.

C . Accept

Accepting the risk means acknowledging it without implementing countermeasures, which is not advisable for high-value assets at risk from sophisticated attacks.

D . Mitigate

Mitigation involves implementing technical or administrative controls to reduce the impact of an attack. For zero-day exploits, this could include installing network-based protections, enhancing monitoring, or applying threat intelligence to detect or contain potential exploit attempts.

NIST SP 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments.

OWASP Risk Rating Methodology: Techniques for assessing and mitigating security risks.

asked 15/11/2024
Shan Panikker
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