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A national tax administration agency with a distributed network experiences service disruptions due to a large influx of traffic to a regional office near the end of each year. Which of the following would BEST enable the agency to improve the performance of its servers during the busy period?

A.
Virtual firewall
A.
Virtual firewall
Answers
B.
Proxy server
B.
Proxy server
Answers
C.
Load balancer
C.
Load balancer
Answers
D.
Virtual private network (VPN)
D.
Virtual private network (VPN)
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A load balancer is a tool or application that distributes incoming network traffic among multiple servers in a server farm, so that no server is overwhelmed and the performance of the system is optimized1. A load balancer can help the agency to handle the large influx of traffic to a regional office by balancing the workload among the available servers and preventing service disruptions.A load balancer can also provide high availability and fault tolerance by rerouting traffic to online servers if a server becomes unavailable2.

A virtual firewall is a software-based firewall that protects a virtual network or environment from unauthorized access and malicious attacks. A virtual firewall can enhance the security of the agency's network, but it does not improve the performance of its servers.

A proxy server is an intermediary server that acts as a gateway between the client and the destination server, hiding the client's IP address and providing caching and filtering functions. A proxy server can improve the security and privacy of the agency's network, but it does not improve the performance of its servers.

A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure connection between two or more devices over a public network, such as the internet. A VPN can encrypt and protect the data transmitted over the network, but it does not improve the performance of the agency's servers.

An organization is disposing of removable onsite media which contains sensitive information. Which of the following is the MOST effective method to prevent disclosure of sensitive data?

A.
Encrypting and destroying keys
A.
Encrypting and destroying keys
Answers
B.
Machine shredding
B.
Machine shredding
Answers
C.
Software formatting
C.
Software formatting
Answers
D.
Wiping and rewriting three times
D.
Wiping and rewriting three times
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Machine shredding is the process of using a shredding machine to physically destroy the media and make the data unrecoverable.This is more effective than software formatting, which only erases the data logically and may leave traces that can be recovered by special tools1. Encrypting and destroying keys may prevent unauthorized access to the data, but it does not erase the data from the media.Wiping and rewriting three times is unnecessary and may reduce the lifespan of the media, especially for solid state drives2.Machine shredding is also recommended by various security standards and guidelines for media disposal345.

Which of the following is MOST important for the successful establishment of a security vulnerability management program?

A.
A robust tabletop exercise plan
A.
A robust tabletop exercise plan
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B.
A comprehensive asset inventory
B.
A comprehensive asset inventory
Answers
C.
A tested incident response plan
C.
A tested incident response plan
Answers
D.
An approved patching policy
D.
An approved patching policy
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A comprehensive asset inventory is the most important factor for the successful establishment of a security vulnerability management program.A security vulnerability management program is a systematic process of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and remediating vulnerabilities in the organization's IT environment1.A comprehensive asset inventory is a complete and accurate record of all the hardware, software, and network components that the organization owns or uses2. A comprehensive asset inventory helps the organization to:

Know what assets are in scope for vulnerability scanning and assessment3.

Identify the vulnerabilities that affect each asset and their severity level4.

Prioritize the remediation of vulnerabilities based on the criticality and value of each asset.

Track the status and progress of vulnerability remediation for each asset.

Measure the effectiveness and maturity of the vulnerability management program.

A robust tabletop exercise plan is a simulated scenario that tests the organization's preparedness and response capabilities for a potential cyberattack or incident. A tabletop exercise plan is useful for validating and improving the organization's incident response plan, but it is not essential for establishing a security vulnerability management program.

A tested incident response plan is a documented process that defines the roles, responsibilities, and actions of the organization's personnel in the event of a cyberattack or incident. A tested incident response plan is important for minimizing the impact and restoring normal operations after a security breach, but it is not critical for establishing a security vulnerability management program.

An approved patching policy is a set of rules and guidelines that governs how the organization applies patches and updates to its IT systems and applications. An approved patching policy is a key component of the remediation phase of the vulnerability management program, but it is not sufficient for establishing a security vulnerability management program.

An IS auditor is reviewing the backup procedures in an organization that has high volumes of data with frequent changes to transactions. Which of the following is the BEST backup scheme to recommend given the need for a shorter restoration time in the event of a disruption?

A.
Differential backup
A.
Differential backup
Answers
B.
Full backup
B.
Full backup
Answers
C.
Incremental backup
C.
Incremental backup
Answers
D.
Mirror backup
D.
Mirror backup
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A mirror backup is a type of backup that creates an exact copy of the source data to the destination, without using any compression or encryption. A mirror backup is the best backup scheme to recommend given the need for a shorter restoration time in the event of a disruption, because it allows for the fastest and easiest recovery of data. A mirror backup does not store any previous versions of the files, so it only reflects the current state of the source data. Therefore, a mirror backup requires less storage space than a full backup, but more than an incremental or differential backup.

A differential backup is a type of backup that stores the changes made to the source data since the last full backup. A differential backup requires less storage space and time than a full backup, but more than an incremental backup. However, a differential backup also requires more time and resources to restore than a mirror or full backup, because it needs to combine the last full backup and the latest differential backup to recover the data.

A full backup is a type of backup that copies all the files and folders from the source data to the destination, regardless of whether they have changed or not. A full backup provides the most complete protection of data and the simplest recovery process, but it also requires the most storage space and time to perform. A full backup is usually done periodically, such as weekly or monthly, and followed by incremental or differential backups.

An incremental backup is a type of backup that stores the changes made to the source data since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup requires the least storage space and time to perform, but it also requires the most time and resources to restore, because it needs to combine all the previous backups in chronological order to recover the data.

An IS auditor is reviewing a client's outsourced payroll system to assess whether the financial audit team can rely on the application. Which of the following findings would be the auditor's

GREATEST concern?

A.
User access rights have not been periodically reviewed by the client.
A.
User access rights have not been periodically reviewed by the client.
Answers
B.
Payroll processing costs have not been included in the IT budget.
B.
Payroll processing costs have not been included in the IT budget.
Answers
C.
The third-party contract has not been reviewed by the legal department.
C.
The third-party contract has not been reviewed by the legal department.
Answers
D.
The third-party contract does not comply with the vendor management policy.
D.
The third-party contract does not comply with the vendor management policy.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The third-party contract has not been reviewed by the legal department is the auditor's greatest concern because it poses a significant legal and financial risk to the client. A third-party contract is a legally binding agreement between the client and the outsourced payroll provider that defines the scope, terms, and conditions of the service. A third-party contract should be reviewed by the legal department to ensure that it complies with the applicable laws and regulations, protects the client's interests and rights, and specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties. A third-party contract that has not been reviewed by the legal department may contain clauses that are unfavorable, ambiguous, or contradictory to the client, such as:

Inadequate or unclear service level agreements (SLAs) that do not specify the quality, timeliness, and accuracy of the payroll service.

Insufficient or vague security and confidentiality provisions that do not safeguard the client's data and information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or loss.

Unreasonable or excessive fees, penalties, or liabilities that may impose an undue financial burden on the client.

Limited or no audit rights that may prevent the client from verifying the effectiveness and compliance of the payroll provider's internal controls.

Inflexible or restrictive termination clauses that may limit the client's ability to cancel or switch to another payroll provider.

A third-party contract that has not been reviewed by the legal department may expose the client to various risks, such as:

Legal disputes or litigation with the payroll provider over contractual breaches or performance issues.

Regulatory fines or sanctions for noncompliance with tax, labor, or other laws and regulations related to payroll.

Financial losses or damages due to errors, fraud, or negligence by the payroll provider.

Reputation damage or customer dissatisfaction due to payroll errors or delays.

Therefore, an IS auditor should be highly concerned about a third-party contract that has not been reviewed by the legal department and recommend that the client seek legal advice before signing or renewing any contract with an outsourced payroll provider.

User access rights have not been periodically reviewed by the client is a moderate concern because it may indicate a lack of proper access control over the payroll system. User access rights are the permissions granted to users to access, view, modify, or delete data and information in the payroll system. User access rights should be periodically reviewed by the client to ensure that they are aligned with the user's roles and responsibilities, and that they are revoked or modified when a user changes roles or leaves the organization. User access rights that are not periodically reviewed by the client may result in unauthorized or inappropriate access to payroll data and information, which may compromise its confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Payroll processing costs have not been included in the IT budget is a minor concern because it may indicate a lack of proper planning and allocation of IT resources for payroll processing. Payroll processing costs are the expenses incurred by the client for using an outsourced payroll service, such as fees, charges, taxes, or penalties. Payroll processing costs should be included in the IT budget to ensure that they are adequately estimated, monitored, and controlled. Payroll processing costs that are not included in the IT budget may result in unexpected or excessive costs for payroll processing, which may affect the client's profitability and cash flow.

The third-party contract does not comply with the vendor management policy is a low concern because it may indicate a lack of alignment between the client's vendor management policy and its actual vendor selection and evaluation process. A vendor management policy is a set of guidelines and procedures that governs how the client manages its relationship with its vendors, such as how to select, monitor, evaluate, and terminate vendors. A vendor management policy should be consistent with the client's business objectives, risk appetite, and regulatory requirements. A third-party contract that does not comply with the vendor management policy may result in suboptimal vendor performance or service quality, but it does not necessarily imply a breach of contract or a violation of law.

Which of the following is the BEST way for an IS auditor to assess the design of an automated application control?

A.
Interview the application developer.
A.
Interview the application developer.
Answers
B.
Obtain management attestation and sign-off.
B.
Obtain management attestation and sign-off.
Answers
C.
Review the application implementation documents.
C.
Review the application implementation documents.
Answers
D.
Review system configuration parameters and output.
D.
Review system configuration parameters and output.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Reviewing the application implementation documents is the best way for an IS auditor to assess the design of an automated application control. An automated application control is a control that is embedded in the application software and is executed by the system without human intervention. An automated application control is designed to ensure the accuracy, completeness, validity, and authorization of transactions and data processed by the application. Examples of automated application controls are input validation, edit checks, calculations, reconciliations, and exception reports.

The application implementation documents are the documents that describe the design specifications, logic, and functionality of the application and its controls. The application implementation documents may include:

Business requirements document - a document that defines the business objectives, needs, and expectations of the application.

Functional specifications document - a document that describes the features, functions, and interfaces of the application and its controls.

Technical specifications document - a document that details the technical architecture, design, and configuration of the application and its controls.

Test plan and test cases - a document that outlines the testing strategy, methodology, and scenarios for verifying the functionality and performance of the application and its controls.

User manual and training material - a document that provides instructions and guidance on how to use the application and its controls.

By reviewing the application implementation documents, an IS auditor can:

Gain an understanding of the purpose, scope, and nature of the application and its controls.

Evaluate whether the application and its controls are designed to meet the business requirements and objectives.

Identify any gaps, inconsistencies, or errors in the design of the application and its controls.

Compare the design of the application and its controls with the best practices and standards in the industry.

Determine whether the application and its controls are adequately tested and documented.

Interviewing the application developer is not the best way for an IS auditor to assess the design of an automated application control. An interview is a verbal communication technique that involves asking questions and listening to responses. An interview can be useful for obtaining general information or clarifying specific issues related to the application and its controls. However, an interview alone cannot provide sufficient evidence or documentation to support the auditor's assessment of the design of an automated application control. An interview may also be subject to bias, misunderstanding, or misinterpretation by either party.

Obtaining management attestation and sign-off is not the best way for an IS auditor to assess the design of an automated application control. Management attestation and sign-off is a formal process that involves obtaining written confirmation from management that they have reviewed and approved the design of the application and its controls. Management attestation and sign-off can indicate management's commitment and accountability for the quality and effectiveness of the application and its controls. However, management attestation and sign-off cannot substitute for an independent and objective evaluation by an IS auditor. Management attestation and sign-off may also be influenced by pressure, conflict of interest, or fraud.

Reviewing system configuration parameters and output is not the best way for an IS auditor to assess the design of an automated application control. System configuration parameters are settings that define how the system operates or interacts with other components. System output is data or information that is produced by the system as a result of processing transactions or performing functions. Reviewing system configuration parameters and output can help an IS auditor to verify whether the system is configured correctly and whether it produces accurate and reliable output. However, reviewing system configuration parameters and output cannot provide a comprehensive view of how the application and its controls are designed to achieve their objectives. Reviewing system configuration parameters and output may also require technical expertise or access rights that may not be available to an IS auditor.

The PRIMARY purpose of an incident response plan is to:

A.
reduce the impact of an adverse event on information assets.
A.
reduce the impact of an adverse event on information assets.
Answers
B.
increase the effectiveness of preventive controls.
B.
increase the effectiveness of preventive controls.
Answers
C.
reduce the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of impacted systems.
C.
reduce the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of impacted systems.
Answers
D.
increase awareness of impacts from adverse events to IT systems.
D.
increase awareness of impacts from adverse events to IT systems.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The primary purpose of an incident response plan is to reduce the impact of an adverse event on information assets. An incident response plan is a set of instructions and procedures that guide the organization's actions in the event of a security breach, cyberattack, or other disruption that affects its information systems and data. An incident response plan aims to:

Detect and identify the incident as soon as possible.

Contain and isolate the incident to prevent further damage or spread.

Analyze and investigate the incident to determine its cause, scope, and impact.

Eradicate and eliminate the incident and its root causes from the affected systems and data.

Recover and restore the normal operations and functionality of the systems and data.

Learn and improve from the incident by documenting the lessons learned, best practices, and recommendations for future prevention and mitigation.

By following an incident response plan, the organization can minimize the negative consequences of an adverse event on its information assets, such as:

Loss or corruption of data or information.

Disclosure or theft of confidential or sensitive data or information.

Interruption or degradation of system or service availability or performance.

Legal or regulatory noncompliance or liability.

Financial or reputational loss or damage.

An incident response plan also helps the organization to demonstrate its due diligence and accountability in protecting its information assets and complying with its legal and contractual obligations.

The other options are not the primary purpose of an incident response plan, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes of having one.

Increasing the effectiveness of preventive controls is not the primary purpose of an incident response plan. Preventive controls are controls that aim to prevent or deter incidents from occurring in the first place, such as firewalls, antivirus software, encryption, authentication, etc. An incident response plan is a reactive control that deals with incidents after they have occurred. However, an incident response plan may help to improve the effectiveness of preventive controls by identifying and addressing their weaknesses or gaps.

Reducing the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) of impacted systems is not the primary purpose of an incident response plan. MTD is a measure of how long an organization can tolerate a system or service outage before it causes unacceptable harm or loss to its business operations or objectives. An incident response plan may help to reduce the MTD of impacted systems by facilitating a faster and smoother recovery process. However, reducing the MTD is not the main goal of an incident response plan, but rather a desired outcome.

Increasing awareness of impacts from adverse events to IT systems is not the primary purpose of an incident response plan. Awareness is a state of being informed or conscious of something. An incident response plan may help to increase awareness of impacts from adverse events to IT systems by providing information and communication channels for stakeholders, such as management, employees, customers, regulators, etc. However, increasing awareness is not the main objective of an incident response plan, but rather a means to achieve other objectives, such as reducing impact, ensuring compliance, or maintaining trust.

An IS audit manager was temporarily tasked with supervising a project manager assigned to the organization's payroll application upgrade. Upon returning to the audit department, the audit manager has been asked to perform an audit to validate the implementation of the payroll application. The audit manager is the only one in the audit department with IT project management experience. What is the BEST course of action?

A.
Transfer the assignment to a different audit manager despite lack of IT project management experience.
A.
Transfer the assignment to a different audit manager despite lack of IT project management experience.
Answers
B.
Outsource the audit to independent and qualified resources.
B.
Outsource the audit to independent and qualified resources.
Answers
C.
Manage the audit since there is no one else with the appropriate experience.
C.
Manage the audit since there is no one else with the appropriate experience.
Answers
D.
Have a senior IS auditor manage the project with the IS audit manager performing final review.
D.
Have a senior IS auditor manage the project with the IS audit manager performing final review.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Outsourcing the audit to independent and qualified resources is the best course of action for the IS audit manager who was temporarily tasked with supervising a project manager assigned to the organization's payroll application upgrade. This is because the IS audit manager has a potential conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence, which are essential principles and standards for IS auditors.

According to the ISACA Code of Professional Ethics, IS auditors should maintain objectivity and independence in their professional judgment and avoid any situations that may impair or be presumed to impair their objectivity or independence1.Objectivity is the mental attitude of an IS auditor that allows them to perform their work honestly, impartially, and with integrity, while independence is the freedom from conditions that threaten the ability of an IS auditor to carry out their work in an unbiased manner2.

The IS audit manager who was involved in supervising the payroll application upgrade project may have a self-review threat, which is the risk that an IS auditor will not appropriately evaluate the results of a previous judgment made or service performed by them or their subordinates3.The IS audit manager may also have a familiarity threat, which is the risk that an IS auditor will be influenced by a close relationship with someone involved in the project or by their own personal interests4. These threats may compromise the IS audit manager's objectivity and independence and affect the quality and credibility of the audit.

Therefore, the IS audit manager should disclose their involvement in the project to their senior management and the audit committee and decline to perform or manage the audit. The IS audit manager should also recommend outsourcing the audit to independent and qualified resources who have no connection or interest in the project and who have the necessary skills and experience to conduct a reliable and effective audit.

The other options are not the best course of action for the IS audit manager.

Transferring the assignment to a different audit manager despite lack of IT project management experience is not the best course of action because it may result in a low-quality audit that does not meet the expectations and standards of the stakeholders. IT project management experience is essential for auditing an IT project, as it requires knowledge of project management methodologies, tools, techniques, risks, and best practices. An audit manager who lacks IT project management experience may not be able to plan, execute, report, and follow up on the audit effectively and efficiently.

Managing the audit since there is no one else with the appropriate experience is not the best course of action because it violates the ethical principles and standards of objectivity and independence for IS auditors. Managing the audit would create a conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence for the IS audit manager, as they would be reviewing their own work or that of their subordinate. Managing the audit would also undermine the credibility and reliability of the audit results and recommendations, as they may be biased or influenced by personal or professional relationships or interests.

Having a senior IS auditor manage the project with the IS audit manager performing final review is not the best course of action because it still involves the IS audit manager in the audit process, which poses a conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence. Performing final review would require the IS audit manager to evaluate and approve the work done by the senior IS auditor, which may be affected by their previous involvement in or knowledge of the project. Performing final review would also expose the IS audit manager to undue pressure or influence from management or other stakeholders who may have expectations or preferences regarding the audit outcome.

To reduce operational costs, IT management plans to reduce the number of servers currently used to run business applications. Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying which servers are no longer required?

A.
Performance feedback from the user community
A.
Performance feedback from the user community
Answers
B.
Contract with the server vendor
B.
Contract with the server vendor
Answers
C.
Server CPU usage trends
C.
Server CPU usage trends
Answers
D.
Mean time between failure (MTBF) of each server
D.
Mean time between failure (MTBF) of each server
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

When identifying which servers are no longer required, reviewingserver CPU usage trendsis the most helpful approach. Monitoring the CPU usage over time provides insights into how actively a server is being utilized. Servers with consistently low CPU usage may be candidates for consolidation or decommissioning.By analyzing CPU utilization patterns, IT management can make informed decisions about which servers can be retired without impacting performance or availability1.

ISACA.''Technical Guide on IT Migration Audit.''1(http://kb.icai.org/pdfs/PDFFile5b278a12a66758.27269499.pdf)

Zapier.''IT audit: The ultimate guide [with checklist].''2(https://zapier.com/blog/it-audit/)

ISACA.''CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor.''3(https://www.isaca.org/credentialing/cisa)

During a review of system access, an IS auditor notes that an employee who has recently changed roles within the organization still has previous access rights. The auditor's NEXT step should be to:

A.
recommend a control to automatically update access rights.
A.
recommend a control to automatically update access rights.
Answers
B.
determine the reason why access rights have not been revoked.
B.
determine the reason why access rights have not been revoked.
Answers
C.
direct management to revoke current access rights.
C.
direct management to revoke current access rights.
Answers
D.
determine if access rights are in violation of software licenses.
D.
determine if access rights are in violation of software licenses.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The NEXT step for the IS auditor after noting that an employee who has recently changed roles within the organization still has previous access rights should be to B. determine the reason why access rights have not been revoked. Identifying the cause of this situation is crucial for understanding whether it's due to oversight, process gaps, or other factors. Once the reason is determined, appropriate corrective actions can be recommended to ensure that access rights are aligned with the employee's current role and responsibilities1.

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