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Which of the following be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor reviewing on-site preventive maintenance for an organization's business-critical server hardware?

A.
Preventive maintenance costs exceed the business allocated budget.
A.
Preventive maintenance costs exceed the business allocated budget.
Answers
B.
Preventive maintenance has not been approved by the information system
B.
Preventive maintenance has not been approved by the information system
Answers
C.
Preventive maintenance is outsourced to multiple vendors without requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
C.
Preventive maintenance is outsourced to multiple vendors without requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Answers
D.
The preventive maintenance schedule is based on mean time between failures (MTBF) parameters.
D.
The preventive maintenance schedule is based on mean time between failures (MTBF) parameters.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The answer C is correct because preventive maintenance is outsourced to multiple vendors without requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) would be of greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing on-site preventive maintenance for an organization's business-critical server hardware. This is because outsourcing preventive maintenance to multiple vendors without NDAs exposes the organization to the risk of unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification of sensitive data and information stored on the servers. NDAs are legal contracts that bind the vendors to protect the confidentiality and security of the data and information they access or handle during the preventive maintenance. Without NDAs, the vendors may not have any obligation or incentive to safeguard the data and information, and they may misuse, leak, or compromise them for malicious or commercial purposes. This could result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, or regulatory penalties for the organization.

The other options are not as concerning as option C. Preventive maintenance costs exceed the business allocated budget (option A) is a financial issue that may affect the profitability or efficiency of the organization, but it does not directly impact the security or availability of the server hardware. Preventive maintenance has not been approved by the information system (option B) is a procedural issue that may indicate a lack of coordination or communication between the IT department and the business units, but it does not necessarily affect the quality or effectiveness of the preventive maintenance. The preventive maintenance schedule is based on mean time between failures (MTBF) parameters (option D) is a technical issue that may influence the frequency or timing of the preventive maintenance, but it does not imply any risk or deficiency in the preventive maintenance itself.

What is a Maintenance Audit?

How to audit your preventative maintenance schedule

5 Step Maintenance Management Program Audit

How do you get effective Preventive Maintenance really?

What is a Planned Preventative Maintenance Audit?

Which of the following is the BEST indicator for measuring performance of IT help desk function?

A.
Percentage of problems raised from incidents
A.
Percentage of problems raised from incidents
Answers
B.
Mean time to categorize tickets
B.
Mean time to categorize tickets
Answers
C.
Number 0t incidents reported
C.
Number 0t incidents reported
Answers
D.
Number of reopened tickets
D.
Number of reopened tickets
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The answer D is correct because the number of reopened tickets is the best indicator for measuring the performance of IT help desk function. Reopened tickets are tickets that have been marked as resolved by the help desk agents, but the customers are not satisfied with the resolution and reopen them for further assistance. Reopened tickets reflect the quality and effectiveness of the help desk service, as well as the customer satisfaction level. A high number of reopened tickets indicates that the help desk agents are not resolving the issues properly, or that they are not communicating well with the customers. This can lead to customer frustration, dissatisfaction, and churn. Therefore, minimizing the number of reopened tickets is a key goal for any help desk function.

The other options are not as good as option D. Percentage of problems raised from incidents (option A) is a metric that shows how many incidents are escalated to problems, which are more complex and require root cause analysis and long-term solutions. This metric reflects the complexity and severity of the issues faced by the customers, but it does not directly measure the performance of the help desk function. Mean time to categorize tickets (option B) is a metric that shows how long it takes for the help desk agents to assign a category to each ticket, such as technical, billing, or feedback. This metric reflects the efficiency and accuracy of the help desk agents, but it does not measure the quality or effectiveness of the resolution. Number of incidents reported (option C) is a metric that shows how many issues are reported by the customers to the help desk function. This metric reflects the demand and workload of the help desk function, but it does not measure how well the issues are resolved or how satisfied the customers are.

Key Metrics to Measure Help Desk Performance

8 service desk KPIs and performance metrics for IT support

13 Most Important Help Desk KPIs to Track and Measure Help Desk Performance

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when conducting an audit Of an organization's data privacy practices?

A.
Whether a disciplinary process is established for data privacy violations
A.
Whether a disciplinary process is established for data privacy violations
Answers
B.
Whether strong encryption algorithms are deployed for personal data protection
B.
Whether strong encryption algorithms are deployed for personal data protection
Answers
C.
Whether privacy technologies are implemented for personal data protection
C.
Whether privacy technologies are implemented for personal data protection
Answers
D.
Whether the systems inventory containing personal data is maintained
D.
Whether the systems inventory containing personal data is maintained
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The answer D is correct because the most important thing to determine when conducting an audit of an organization's data privacy practices is whether the systems inventory containing personal data is maintained. A systems inventory is a list of all the systems, applications, databases, and devices that store, process, or transmit personal data within the organization. Maintaining a systems inventory is essential for data privacy because it helps the organization to identify, classify, and protect the personal data it holds, as well as to comply with the relevant privacy laws and regulations. A systems inventory also enables the organization to perform data protection impact assessments (DPIAs), data breach notifications, data subject access requests, and data retention and disposal policies.

The other options are not as important as option D. Whether a disciplinary process is established for data privacy violations (option A) is a policy issue that may deter or sanction the employees who violate the data privacy rules, but it does not directly affect the data privacy practices of the organization. Whether strong encryption algorithms are deployed for personal data protection (option B) is a technical issue that may enhance the security and confidentiality of the personal data, but it does not address the other aspects of data privacy, such as accuracy, consent, and purpose limitation. Whether privacy technologies are implemented for personal data protection (option C) is also a technical issue that may support the data privacy practices of the organization, but it does not guarantee that the organization follows the best practices or complies with the applicable laws and regulations.

IS Audit Basics: Auditing Data Privacy

Best Practices for Privacy Audits

ISACA Produces New Audit and Assurance Programs for Data Privacy and Mobile Computing

Which of the following is MOST useful to an IS auditor performing a review of access controls for a document management system?

A.
Policies and procedures for managing documents provided by department heads
A.
Policies and procedures for managing documents provided by department heads
Answers
B.
A system-generated list of staff and their project assignments. roles, and responsibilities
B.
A system-generated list of staff and their project assignments. roles, and responsibilities
Answers
C.
Previous audit reports related to other departments' use of the same system
C.
Previous audit reports related to other departments' use of the same system
Answers
D.
Information provided by the audit team lead an the authentication systems used by the department
D.
Information provided by the audit team lead an the authentication systems used by the department
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The answer B is correct because a system-generated list of staff and their project assignments, roles, and responsibilities is the most useful to an IS auditor performing a review of access controls for a document management system. A document management system is a software that helps organizations store, manage, and share documents electronically. Access controls are the mechanisms that restrict or allow access to the documents based on predefined criteria, such as user identity, role, or project. An IS auditor needs to verify that the access controls are properly configured and implemented to ensure the security, confidentiality, and integrity of the documents.

A system-generated list of staff and their project assignments, roles, and responsibilities can help the IS auditor to perform the following tasks:

Identify the users who have access to the document management system and their level of access (e.g., read-only, edit, delete, etc.).

Compare the actual access rights of the users with their expected or authorized access rights based on their roles and responsibilities.

Detect any anomalies, discrepancies, or violations in the access rights of the users, such as excessive or unauthorized access, segregation of duties conflicts, or dormant or inactive accounts.

Evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the access control policies and procedures, such as user provisioning, deprovisioning, authentication, authorization, auditing, etc.

The other options are not as useful as option B. Policies and procedures for managing documents provided by department heads (option A) are not reliable sources of information for an IS auditor because they may not reflect the actual practices or compliance status of the document management system. Previous audit reports related to other departments' use of the same system (option C) are not relevant for an IS auditor because they may not address the specific issues or risks associated with the current department's use of the document management system. Information provided by the audit team lead on the authentication systems used by the department (option D) is not sufficient for an IS auditor because authentication is only one aspect of access control and it does not provide information on the authorization or auditing of the document access.

Overview of document management in SharePoint

Setting Up a Document Control System: 6 Basic Steps

Access Control Management: Purpose, Types, Tools, & Benefits

9 Best Document Management Systems of 2023

Which of the following is the MOST efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care?

A.
Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider
A.
Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider
Answers
B.
Software as a Service (SaaS) provider
B.
Software as a Service (SaaS) provider
Answers
C.
Network segmentation
C.
Network segmentation
Answers
D.
Dynamic localization
D.
Dynamic localization
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The answer B is correct because Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is the most efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. SaaS is a cloud computing model that allows users to access software applications over the internet, without having to install, maintain, or update them on their own devices or servers. SaaS providers host and manage the software applications and the underlying infrastructure, and handle any issues such as security, availability, and performance.

SaaS can offer several benefits for a multi-location healthcare organization, such as:

Accessibility: SaaS applications can be accessed from any device and location that has an internet connection, which enables the healthcare organization to access patient data across different facilities and regions, and provide seamless and coordinated care to the patients.

Scalability: SaaS applications can scale up or down according to the demand and usage of the healthcare organization, which allows the organization to accommodate fluctuations in patient volume, data volume, or service requirements.

Cost-effectiveness: SaaS applications are usually offered on a subscription or pay-per-use basis, which reduces the upfront and ongoing costs of purchasing, installing, and maintaining software licenses, hardware, and IT staff.

Security: SaaS providers are responsible for ensuring the security and privacy of the software applications and the data they store, which can help the healthcare organization comply with the relevant regulations and standards, such as HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) or GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation).

Some examples of SaaS providers that offer solutions for healthcare organizations are:

Epic: Epic is a leading provider of electronic health record (EHR) systems that enable healthcare organizations to store, manage, and share patient data across different settings and specialties. Epic also offers cloud-based solutions that allow healthcare organizations to access Epic's software applications over the internet, without having to host them on their own servers.

Salesforce Health Cloud: Salesforce Health Cloud is a cloud-based platform that helps healthcare organizations connect with patients, providers, payers, and partners. Salesforce Health Cloud enables healthcare organizations to manage patient relationships, coordinate care teams, engage patients through personalized journeys, and leverage data and analytics to improve outcomes and efficiency.

DocuSign: DocuSign is a cloud-based platform that enables users to sign, send, and manage documents electronically. DocuSign can help healthcare organizations streamline workflows, reduce errors, and enhance compliance by automating the process of obtaining signatures for consent forms, contracts, prescriptions, referrals, and other documents.

The other options are not as efficient as option B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provider (option A) is a cloud computing model that provides users with access to computing resources such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems over the internet. IaaS can offer some benefits such as flexibility, scalability, and cost-effectiveness for a multi-location healthcare organization, but it also requires more technical expertise and management from the organization than SaaS. The organization would still need to install, configure, update, and secure the software applications that run on the IaaS infrastructure. Network segmentation (option C) is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation can improve the performance, security, and manageability of a network by reducing congestion, isolating threats, and enforcing policies. However, network segmentation alone does not enable a multi-location healthcare organization to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. The organization would still need a software solution that can store, manage, and share patient data across different segments of the network. Dynamic localization (option D) is a process that adapts the content and functionality of a software application to suit the preferences and needs of users in different locations or regions. Dynamic localization can enhance the user experience and satisfaction by providing relevant information in local languages, currencies, formats, and regulations. However, dynamic localization does not address the core issue of accessing patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. The organization would still need a software solution that can store, manage, and share patient data across different locations or regions.

Epic

Salesforce Health Cloud

DocuSign

An IS auditor evaluating the change management process must select a sample from the change log. What is the BEST way to the auditor to confirm the change log is complete?

A.
Interview change management personnel about completeness.
A.
Interview change management personnel about completeness.
Answers
B.
Take an item from the log and trace it back to the system.
B.
Take an item from the log and trace it back to the system.
Answers
C.
Obtain management attestation of completeness.
C.
Obtain management attestation of completeness.
Answers
D.
Take the last change from the system and trace it back to the log.
D.
Take the last change from the system and trace it back to the log.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The answer D is correct because the best way for the auditor to confirm the change log is complete is to take the last change from the system and trace it back to the log. A change log is a record of all the changes that have been made to a system, such as software updates, bug fixes, configuration modifications, etc. A change log should contain information such as the date and time of the change, the description and purpose of the change, the person or service who made the change, and the approval status of the change. A complete change log helps to ensure that the system is secure, reliable, and compliant with the relevant standards and regulations.

An IS auditor evaluating the change management process must select a sample from the change log to verify that the changes are properly authorized, documented, tested, and implemented. However, before selecting a sample, the auditor must ensure that the change log is complete and accurate, meaning that it contains all the changes that have been made to the system and that there are no missing, duplicated, or falsified entries. To do this, the auditor can use a technique called backward tracing, which involves taking the last change from the system and tracing it back to the log. This way, the auditor can check if the change is recorded in the log with all the relevant details and if there are any gaps or inconsistencies in the log. If the last change from the system is not found in the log or does not match with the log entry, it indicates that the change log is incomplete or inaccurate.

The other options are not as good as option D. Interviewing change management personnel about completeness (option A) is not a reliable way to confirm the change log is complete because it relies on subjective opinions and self-reported information, which may not be truthful or accurate. Taking an item from the log and tracing it back to the system (option B) is a technique called forward tracing, which can be used to verify that a specific change in the log has been implemented in the system. However, this technique does not confirm that all changes in the system are recorded in the log. Obtaining management attestation of completeness (option C) is not a sufficient way to confirm the change log is complete because it does not provide any evidence or verification of completeness. Management attestation may also be biased or influenced by conflicts of interest.

IS Audit Basics: Auditing Data Privacy

Audit Logging: What It Is & How It Works | Datadog

Change Management for SOC: Risks, Controls, Audits, Guidance

Turn auditing on or off | Microsoft Learn

#118 | ITGC- System Change (Audit) Log Review - A2Q2

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to mitigate against the risk of inappropriate activity by employees?

A.
User activity monitoring
A.
User activity monitoring
Answers
B.
Two-factor authentication
B.
Two-factor authentication
Answers
C.
Network segmentation
C.
Network segmentation
Answers
D.
Access recertification
D.
Access recertification
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The answer A is correct because user activity monitoring is the most effective control to mitigate against the risk of inappropriate activity by employees. User activity monitoring (UAM) is the process of tracking and recording the actions and behaviors of users on devices, networks, or applications that belong to an organization. UAM can help to prevent, detect, and respond to insider threats, such as data theft, fraud, sabotage, or misuse of resources. UAM can also help to enforce policies, ensure compliance, and improve productivity and performance.

Some of the benefits of UAM are:

Prevention: UAM can deter employees from engaging in inappropriate activity by making them aware that their actions are monitored and recorded. UAM can also prevent unauthorized access or use of sensitive data or resources by implementing access controls, encryption, or alerts.

Detection: UAM can detect any anomalies, deviations, or violations in user activity by analyzing the data collected from various sources, such as logs, keystrokes, screenshots, or video recordings. UAM can also use artificial intelligence or machine learning to identify patterns, trends, or risks in user behavior.

Response: UAM can respond to any incidents or issues related to user activity by notifying the relevant stakeholders, such as managers, security teams, or auditors. UAM can also provide evidence or proof of user activity for investigation or remediation purposes.

Some examples of UAM tools are:

Teramind: Teramind is a cloud-based UAM platform that offers features such as user behavior analytics, risk scoring, policy enforcement, data loss prevention, and productivity optimization.

Digital Guardian: Digital Guardian is a data protection platform that offers UAM capabilities such as endpoint detection and response, data classification and tagging, and threat hunting and incident response.

XPLG: XPLG is a log management and analysis platform that offers UAM features such as log aggregation and correlation, user behavior profiling and anomaly detection, and real-time alerts and dashboards.

The other options are not as effective as option A. Two-factor authentication (option B) is a security mechanism that requires users to provide two pieces of evidence to verify their identity before accessing a system or resource. Two-factor authentication can enhance the security and privacy of user accounts, but it does not monitor or record the user activity after the authentication. Network segmentation (option C) is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation can improve the performance, security, and manageability of a network by reducing congestion, isolating threats, and enforcing policies. However, network segmentation does not track or record the user activity within each segment of the network. Access recertification (option D) is a process that verifies and validates the access rights of users to systems or resources periodically or on-demand. Access recertification can ensure that users have the appropriate level of access based on their roles and responsibilities, but it does not monitor or record the user activity with the access rights.

[User Activity Monitoring: Examples and Best Practices | SEON]

Top 10 user activity monitoring tools: software features and tracking price - Dashly blog

What is User Activity Monitoring? How It Works, Benefits, Best Practices and More - Digital Guardian

What Is User Activity Monitoring? Learn the What, Why, and How - XPLG

Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST concern when a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data?

A.
Controls to adequately safeguard the data may not be applied.
A.
Controls to adequately safeguard the data may not be applied.
Answers
B.
Data may not be encrypted by the system administrator.
B.
Data may not be encrypted by the system administrator.
Answers
C.
Competitors may be able to view the data.
C.
Competitors may be able to view the data.
Answers
D.
Control costs may exceed the intrinsic value of the IT asset.
D.
Control costs may exceed the intrinsic value of the IT asset.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The answer A is correct because the greatest concern for an IS auditor when a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data is that controls to adequately safeguard the data may not be applied. Data classification is the process of categorizing data assets based on their information sensitivity and business impact. Data classification helps organizations to identify, protect, and manage their data according to their value and risk. Data owners are the individuals or entities who have the authority and responsibility to define, classify, and control the access and use of their data.

Data classification typically involves assigning labels or tags to data assets, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted. These labels indicate the level of protection and handling required for the data. Based on the data classification, organizations can implement appropriate controls to safeguard the data, such as encryption, access control lists, audit logs, backup policies, etc. These controls help to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss of data, and to ensure compliance with relevant laws and regulations.

If a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data, it can result in either underprotection or overprotection of the data. Underprotection means that the data is classified at a lower level than it should be, which exposes it to higher risks of compromise or breach. For example, if a data owner classifies personal health information (PHI) as public instead of confidential, it may allow anyone to access or share the data without proper authorization or consent. This can violate the privacy rights of the data subjects and the compliance requirements of regulations such as HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). Overprotection means that the data is classified at a higher level than it should be, which limits its availability or usability. For example, if a data owner classifies marketing materials as restricted instead of public, it may prevent potential customers or partners from accessing or viewing the data. This can reduce the business value and opportunities of the data.

Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned about the accuracy and consistency of data classification by data owners, as it affects the security and efficiency of data management. An IS auditor should review the policies and procedures for data classification, verify that the data owners have adequate knowledge and skills to classify their data, and test that the data classification labels match with the actual sensitivity and impact of the data.

Data Classification: What It Is and How to Implement It

What Is Data Classification? - Definition, Levels & Examples ...

Data Classification: A Guide for Data Security Leaders

To mitigate the risk of exposing data through application programming interface (API) queries. which of the following design considerations is MOST important?

A.
Data retention
A.
Data retention
Answers
B.
Data minimization
B.
Data minimization
Answers
C.
Data quality
C.
Data quality
Answers
D.
Data integrity
D.
Data integrity
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The answer B is correct because data minimization is the most important design consideration to mitigate the risk of exposing data through application programming interface (API) queries. An API is a set of rules and protocols that allows different software components or systems to communicate and exchange data. API queries are requests sent by users or applications to an API to retrieve or manipulate data. For example, a user may query an API to get information about a product, a service, or a location.

Data minimization is the principle of collecting, processing, and storing only the minimum amount of data that are necessary for a specific purpose. Data minimization can help to reduce the risk of exposing data through API queries by limiting the amount and type of data that are available or accessible through the API. Data minimization can also help to protect the privacy and security of the data subjects and the data providers, as well as to comply with the relevant laws and regulations.

Some of the benefits of data minimization for API design are:

Privacy: Data minimization can enhance the privacy of the data subjects by ensuring that only the data that are relevant and essential for the API purpose are collected and processed. This can prevent unnecessary or excessive collection or disclosure of personal or sensitive data, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc. Data minimization can also help to comply with the privacy laws and regulations that require data protection by design and by default, such as GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) or CCPA (California Consumer Privacy Act).

Security: Data minimization can improve the security of the data providers by reducing the attack surface and the potential damage of a data breach. If less data are stored or transmitted through the API, there are fewer opportunities for attackers to access or compromise the data. Data minimization can also help to implement security controls such as encryption, access control, or logging more efficiently and effectively.

Performance: Data minimization can increase the performance of the API by optimizing the use of resources and bandwidth. If less data are stored or transmitted through the API, there are less storage space and network traffic required. Data minimization can also help to improve the speed and reliability of the API responses.

Some of the techniques for data minimization in API design are:

Define clear and specific purposes for the API and document them in the API specification or documentation.

Identify and classify the data that are needed for each purpose and assign them appropriate labels or levels, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted.

Implement filters or parameters in the API queries that allow users or applications to specify or limit the data fields or attributes they want to retrieve or manipulate.

Use pagination or throttling in the API responses that limit the number or size of data items returned per request.

Use anonymization or pseudonymization techniques that remove or replace any identifying information from the data before sending them through the API.

Some examples of web resources that discuss data minimization in API design are:

Data Minimization in Web APIs - World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)

Adding Privacy by Design in Secure Application Development

Chung-ju/Data-Minimization: A repository of related papers. - GitHub

During a project assessment, an IS auditor finds that business owners have been removed from the project initiation phase. Which of the following should be the auditor's GREATEST concern with this situation?

A.
Unrealistic milestones
A.
Unrealistic milestones
Answers
B.
Inadequate deliverables
B.
Inadequate deliverables
Answers
C.
Unclear benefits
C.
Unclear benefits
Answers
D.
Incomplete requirements
D.
Incomplete requirements
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The answer D is correct because the greatest concern for an IS auditor with the situation of business owners being removed from the project initiation phase is that the requirements may be incomplete. The project initiation phase is the first step in starting a new project, where the project's purpose, scope, objectives, and deliverables are defined and documented. The project initiation phase also involves identifying and engaging the key stakeholders who have an interest or influence in the project, such as sponsors, customers, users, or business owners.

Business owners are the individuals or entities who have the authority and responsibility to define the business needs and expectations for the project. They are also the primary beneficiaries of the project outcomes and benefits. Business owners play a crucial role in the project initiation phase, as they provide valuable input and feedback on the requirements and specifications of the project. Requirements are the statements that describe what the project should accomplish or deliver to meet the business needs and expectations. Requirements are essential for guiding the project planning, execution, monitoring, and closure phases.

If business owners are removed from the project initiation phase, it can result in incomplete or inaccurate requirements, which can have negative impacts on the project's quality, scope, time, cost, and risk. Some of the possible consequences of incomplete requirements are:

Misalignment: The project may not align with the business strategy, vision, or goals, which can reduce its value or relevance.

Confusion: The project team may not have a clear understanding of what the project should achieve or deliver, which can affect their performance or productivity.

Rework: The project may need to undergo frequent changes or revisions to accommodate new or modified requirements, which can increase the time and cost of the project.

Dissatisfaction: The project may not meet the expectations or satisfaction of the business owners or other stakeholders, which can affect their acceptance or support of the project.

Failure: The project may not deliver the expected outcomes or benefits, which can affect its success or viability.

Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned about the involvement and participation of business owners in the project initiation phase, as it affects the completeness and quality of requirements. An IS auditor should review the policies and procedures for stakeholder identification and engagement, verify that the business owners have adequate knowledge and skills to define their requirements, and test that the requirements are well-defined, documented, approved, and communicated.

Project Initiation: The First Step to Project Management [2023] * Asana

Everything you need to know about the project initiation phase

Project Initiation Phase - The Business Professor

Project Initiation: A Guide to Starting a Project Right Way - Kissflow

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