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A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?

A.
CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H/1: K/A: L
A.
CVSS: 31/AV: N/AC: L/PR: N/UI: N/S: U/C: H/1: K/A: L
Answers
B.
CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
B.
CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L
Answers
C.
CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
C.
CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H
Answers
D.
CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
D.
CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official

Reference: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss

Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization?

A.
PAM
A.
PAM
Answers
B.
IDS
B.
IDS
Answers
C.
PKI
C.
PKI
Answers
D.
DLP
D.
DLP
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a tool that can prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data in motion, in use, or at rest.

An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:

Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

A.
Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
A.
Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
Answers
B.
Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
B.
Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
Answers
C.
Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
C.
Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
Answers
D.
Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header
D.
Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:


Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A.
Lessons learned
A.
Lessons learned
Answers
B.
Service-level agreement
B.
Service-level agreement
Answers
C.
Playbook
C.
Playbook
Answers
D.
Affected hosts
D.
Affected hosts
Answers
E.
Risk score
E.
Risk score
Answers
F.
Education plan
F.
Education plan
Answers
Suggested answer: D, E

Explanation:

A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames, operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official

Reference: https://www.first.org/cvss/

The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?

A.
A mean time to remediate of 30 days
A.
A mean time to remediate of 30 days
Answers
B.
A mean time to detect of 45 days
B.
A mean time to detect of 45 days
Answers
C.
A mean time to respond of 15 days
C.
A mean time to respond of 15 days
Answers
D.
Third-party application testing
D.
Third-party application testing
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited

A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is being used in a production script to determine if it is malicious. Given the following script:

Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script?

A.
PowerShel
A.
PowerShel
Answers
B.
Ruby
B.
Ruby
Answers
C.
Python
C.
Python
Answers
D.
Shell script
D.
Shell script
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The script uses PowerShell syntax, such as cmdlets, parameters, variables, and comments. PowerShell is a scripting language that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems.

A company's user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company's internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP, other times; it is accessible through HTTPS. Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity?

A.
There is an issue with the SSL certificate causinq port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access
A.
There is an issue with the SSL certificate causinq port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access
Answers
B.
An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80
B.
An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80
Answers
C.
The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80
C.
The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80
Answers
D.
An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company's internal routers
D.
An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company's internal routers
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

An on-path attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies network traffic between two parties. In this case, someone with internal access may be performing an on-path attack by forcing users into port 80, which is used for HTTP communication, instead of port 443, which is used for HTTPS communication. This would allow the attacker to compromise the user accounts and access the company's internal portal.

A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below:

Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management

1- The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities.

2- In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data.

3- The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system.

According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.
Option A
A.
Option A
Answers
B.
Option B
B.
Option B
Answers
C.
Option C
C.
Option C
Answers
D.
Option D
D.
Option D
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official

Reference: https://www.first.org/cvss/

Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?

A.
Business continuity plan
A.
Business continuity plan
Answers
B.
Vulnerability management plan
B.
Vulnerability management plan
Answers
C.
Disaster recovery plan
C.
Disaster recovery plan
Answers
D.
Asset management plan
D.
Asset management plan
Answers
Suggested answer: C

The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?

A.
Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement
A.
Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement
Answers
B.
Configure MFA with strict access
B.
Configure MFA with strict access
Answers
C.
Deploy an API gateway
C.
Deploy an API gateway
Answers
D.
Enable SSO to the cloud applications
D.
Enable SSO to the cloud applications
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.

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