CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 2

List of questions
Question 11

A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability. Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?
This answer matches the description of the zero-day threat. The attack vector is network (AV:N), the attack complexity is low (AC:L), no privileges are required (PR:N), no user interaction is required (UI:N), the scope is unchanged (S:U), the confidentiality and integrity impacts are high (C:H/I:H), and the availability impact is low (A:L). Official
Reference: https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
Question 12

Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization?
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a tool that can prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data in motion, in use, or at rest.
Question 13

An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
Question 14

Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)
A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames, operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official
Reference: https://www.first.org/cvss/
Question 15

The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
Question 16

A security analyst recently joined the team and is trying to determine which scripting language is being used in a production script to determine if it is malicious. Given the following script:
Which of the following scripting languages was used in the script?
The script uses PowerShell syntax, such as cmdlets, parameters, variables, and comments. PowerShell is a scripting language that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems.
Question 17

A company's user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company's internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP, other times; it is accessible through HTTPS. Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity?
An on-path attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies network traffic between two parties. In this case, someone with internal access may be performing an on-path attack by forcing users into port 80, which is used for HTTP communication, instead of port 443, which is used for HTTPS communication. This would allow the attacker to compromise the user accounts and access the company's internal portal.
Question 18

A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below:
Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management
1- The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities.
2- In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data.
3- The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system.
According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch?
A)
B)
C)
D)
According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official
Reference: https://www.first.org/cvss/
Question 19

Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?
Question 20

The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?
A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a tool that can help reduce the risk of shadow IT in the enterprise by providing visibility and control over cloud applications and services. A CASB can enable policy enforcement by blocking unauthorized or risky cloud applications, enforcing data loss prevention rules, encrypting sensitive data, and detecting anomalous user behavior.
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