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Which of the following best explains the importance of network microsegmentation as part of a Zero Trust architecture?

A.

To allow policies that are easy to manage and less granular

A.

To allow policies that are easy to manage and less granular

Answers
B.

To increase the costs associated with regulatory compliance

B.

To increase the costs associated with regulatory compliance

Answers
C.

To limit how far an attack can spread

C.

To limit how far an attack can spread

Answers
D.

To reduce hardware costs with the use of virtual appliances

D.

To reduce hardware costs with the use of virtual appliances

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Microsegmentation involves dividing a network into smaller, isolated segments to restrict lateral movement within the network. This is crucial within a Zero Trust architecture, which assumes that no entity (internal or external) is inherently trustworthy. By limiting access to only necessary network segments, microsegmentation reduces the impact of a potential breach by containing it within a limited area. CompTIA emphasizes microsegmentation as an effective strategy to minimize risk and improve security posture by isolating resources based on the principle of least privilege.

A company's internet-facing web application has been compromised several times due to identified design flaws. The company would like to minimize the risk of these incidents from reoccurring and has provided the developers with better security training. However, the company cannot allocate any more internal resources to the issue. Which of the following are the best options to help identify flaws within the system? (Select two).

A.

Deploying a WAF

A.

Deploying a WAF

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B.

Performing a forensic analysis

B.

Performing a forensic analysis

Answers
C.

Contracting a penetration test

C.

Contracting a penetration test

Answers
D.

Holding a tabletop exercise

D.

Holding a tabletop exercise

Answers
E.

Creating a bug bounty program

E.

Creating a bug bounty program

Answers
F.

Implementing threat modeling

F.

Implementing threat modeling

Answers
Suggested answer: C, E

Explanation:

To identify existing vulnerabilities in the web application, the best options are to contract a penetration test and create a bug bounty program. A penetration test simulates attacks against the application to uncover security flaws proactively. A bug bounty program incentivizes external security researchers to find and report vulnerabilities, expanding the testing scope without overburdening internal resources. According to CompTIA CySA+, both methods are highly effective in identifying vulnerabilities from an external perspective, particularly when internal resources are limited. Options like a WAF (A) focus more on prevention than detection, while threat modeling (F) and tabletop exercises (D) are generally proactive measures not focused on active flaw identification.

Which of the following responsibilities does the legal team have during an incident management event? (Select two).

A.

Coordinate additional or temporary staffing for recovery efforts.

A.

Coordinate additional or temporary staffing for recovery efforts.

Answers
B.

Review and approve new contracts acquired as a result of an event.

B.

Review and approve new contracts acquired as a result of an event.

Answers
C.

Advise the Incident response team on matters related to regulatory reporting.

C.

Advise the Incident response team on matters related to regulatory reporting.

Answers
D.

Ensure all system security devices and procedures are in place.

D.

Ensure all system security devices and procedures are in place.

Answers
E.

Conduct computer and network damage assessments for insurance.

E.

Conduct computer and network damage assessments for insurance.

Answers
F.

Verify that all security personnel have the appropriate clearances.

F.

Verify that all security personnel have the appropriate clearances.

Answers
Suggested answer: B, C

Explanation:

During an incident, the legal team plays a crucial role in handling regulatory compliance and reviewing legal implications, such as contractual obligations and reporting requirements. Advising on regulatory reporting (Option C) ensures the organization meets legal mandates, while reviewing contracts (Option B) can address new or emergency services needed during the incident. According to CompTIA CySA+ and Security+ guidelines, these legal responsibilities are vital for compliance and risk management. Options related to staffing, damage assessments, and clearances typically fall under operational or HR responsibilities rather than legal purview.

Executives at an organization email sensitive financial information to external business partners when negotiating valuable contracts. To ensure the legal validity of these messages, the cybersecurity team recommends a digital signature be added to emails sent by the executives. Which of the following are the primary goals of this recommendation? (Select two).

A.

Confidentiality

A.

Confidentiality

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B.

Integrity

B.

Integrity

Answers
C.

Privacy

C.

Privacy

Answers
D.

Anonymity

D.

Anonymity

Answers
E.

Non-repudiation

E.

Non-repudiation

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F.

Authorization

F.

Authorization

Answers
Suggested answer: B, E

Explanation:

Digital signatures ensure the integrity and non-repudiation of emails. Integrity ensures that the message has not been altered in transit, as the digital signature would be invalidated if the content were tampered with. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender cannot deny having sent the email, as the digital signature is unique to their identity. These principles are crucial for legal validity, as recommended by CompTIA Security+ standards. Confidentiality (A) and privacy (C) relate to encryption, while authorization (F) and anonymity (D) are unrelated to the primary purpose of digital signatures in this context.

A company patches its servers using automation software. Remote SSH or RDP connections are allowed to the servers only from the service account used by the automation software. All servers are in an internal subnet without direct access to or from the internet. An analyst reviews the following vulnerability summary:

Which of the following vulnerability IDs should the analyst address first?

A.

1

A.

1

Answers
B.

2

B.

2

Answers
C.

3

C.

3

Answers
D.

4

D.

4

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The vulnerability with the highest CVSS score and an active exploit is Microsoft CVE-2021-34527 (PrintNightmare). Although only present on two instances, its high severity (8.4) and exploitable nature make it a priority. PrintNightmare is a well-known remote code execution vulnerability, which can be a critical risk. According to CompTIA CySA+ and vulnerability management practices, prioritizing based on severity and exploitability is essential, even over the number of instances. Other vulnerabilities listed are less severe or lack active exploitation.

Which of the following in the digital forensics process is considered a critical activity that often includes a graphical representation of process and operating system events?

A.

Registry editing

A.

Registry editing

Answers
B.

Network mapping

B.

Network mapping

Answers
C.

Timeline analysis

C.

Timeline analysis

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D.

Write blocking

D.

Write blocking

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Timeline analysis in digital forensics involves creating a chronological sequence of events based on system logs, file changes, and other forensic data. This process often uses graphical representations to illustrate and analyze how an incident unfolded over time, making it easier to identify key events and potential indicators of compromise. This approach is highlighted in CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) practices as crucial for understanding the scope and sequence of a security incident. The other options do not involve chronological or graphical analysis to the extent that timeline analysis does.

A SOC team lead occasionally collects some DNS information for investigations. The team lead assigns this task to a new junior analyst. Which of the following is the best way to relay the process information to the junior analyst?

A.

Ask another team member to demonstrate their process.

A.

Ask another team member to demonstrate their process.

Answers
B.

Email a link to a website that shows someone demonstrating a similar process.

B.

Email a link to a website that shows someone demonstrating a similar process.

Answers
C.

Let the junior analyst research and develop a process.

C.

Let the junior analyst research and develop a process.

Answers
D.

Write a step-by-step document on the team wiki outlining the process.

D.

Write a step-by-step document on the team wiki outlining the process.

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Documenting the process in a step-by-step format on the team wiki ensures the junior analyst has a clear, repeatable reference. This approach also supports consistency and accuracy, and the documentation can be updated or referenced by other team members as needed. CompTIA emphasizes the importance of procedural documentation in both CySA+ and Security+ for ensuring team members have reliable resources for task execution, which aids in knowledge retention and standardized practices across the team.

An organization identifies a method to detect unexpected behavior, crashes, or resource leaks in a system by feeding invalid, unexpected, or random data to stress the application. Which of the following best describes this testing methodology?

A.

Reverse engineering

A.

Reverse engineering

Answers
B.

Static

B.

Static

Answers
C.

Fuzzing

C.

Fuzzing

Answers
D.

Debugging

D.

Debugging

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Fuzzing is a testing technique where invalid or random data is inputted into a system to find vulnerabilities, crashes, or unexpected behaviors. It's commonly used in software security to identify flaws that could lead to security breaches. According to CompTIA's CySA+ curriculum, fuzzing is a dynamic testing method for exposing application weaknesses. Options like static testing (B) involve analyzing code without execution, while reverse engineering (A) and debugging (D) involve different methodologies for understanding or fixing code, not intentionally stressing it.

Which of the following responsibilities does the legal team have during an incident management event? (Select two).

A.

Coordinate additional or temporary staffing for recovery efforts.

A.

Coordinate additional or temporary staffing for recovery efforts.

Answers
B.

Review and approve new contracts acquired as a result of an event.

B.

Review and approve new contracts acquired as a result of an event.

Answers
C.

Advise the incident response team on matters related to regulatory reporting.

C.

Advise the incident response team on matters related to regulatory reporting.

Answers
D.

Ensure all system security devices and procedures are in place.

D.

Ensure all system security devices and procedures are in place.

Answers
E.

Conduct computer and network damage assessments for insurance.

E.

Conduct computer and network damage assessments for insurance.

Answers
F.

Verify that all security personnel have the appropriate clearances.

F.

Verify that all security personnel have the appropriate clearances.

Answers
Suggested answer: B, C

Explanation:

The legal team plays a crucial role in managing the legal and compliance aspects of incident response. They review and approve contracts (B) for emergency services, like incident response firms, and provide guidance on regulatory reporting (C), ensuring the organization meets compliance requirements. According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, legal teams focus on regulatory and contractual matters rather than operational aspects like staffing (A) or security procedures (D).

Which of the following best explains the importance of the implementation of a secure software development life cycle in a company with an internal development team?

A.

Increases the product price by using the implementation as a piece of marketing

A.

Increases the product price by using the implementation as a piece of marketing

Answers
B.

Decreases the risks of the software usage and complies with regulatory requirements

B.

Decreases the risks of the software usage and complies with regulatory requirements

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C.

Improves the agile process and decreases the amount of tests before the final deployment

C.

Improves the agile process and decreases the amount of tests before the final deployment

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D.

Transfers the responsibility for security flaws to the vulnerability management team

D.

Transfers the responsibility for security flaws to the vulnerability management team

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Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) integrates security measures at each stage of development to reduce vulnerabilities and improve the overall security of the software. This is essential for minimizing risks related to software usage and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements, which is particularly important for organizations handling sensitive data. As per CompTIA standards, a Secure SDLC helps prevent security breaches and protects both the organization and its users from potential harm. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe the primary goals of a Secure SDLC, which primarily centers on risk reduction and regulatory compliance.

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