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The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions

Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.
Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted
A.
Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted
Answers
B.
Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column
B.
Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column
Answers
C.
Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column
C.
Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column
Answers
D.
Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column
D.
Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Decision tables are used to model complex decision logic by considering different combinations of conditions and actions. Based on the given decision table for prescribing drug therapy:

Column 1 and Column 3 both result in the same actions (prescribing Amoxicillin).

These columns can be merged because the actions taken do not depend on whether the patient is taking anticoagulant therapy (both are 'T' for this condition).

Thus, combining these columns simplifies the decision table without losing any information.

Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases ; As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online'

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story

[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password.

[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions.

[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered.

[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be between 2 and 80 characters long A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?

A.
The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.
A.
The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.
Answers
B.
The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.
B.
The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.
Answers
C.
The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card
C.
The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card
Answers
D.
The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form
D.
The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD) tests focus on verifying whether the system meets the specified acceptance criteria. The most critical path to test first would be the scenario where everything is done correctly (happy path), ensuring the basic functionality works as expected.

The new user provides all valid data.

This ensures the registration form works and the user receives a confirmation email.

This test covers the basic functionality and will help verify that the primary use case is handled correctly before testing invalid or edge cases.

Which of the following statements about the test pyramid is TRUE?

A.
Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality charactenstic.
A.
Each layer of the test pyramid groups tests related to a single non-functional quality charactenstic.
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B.
The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends to cover
B.
The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more production code a single automated test within the layer tends to cover
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C.
The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be
C.
The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more maintainable a single automated test within the layer tends to be
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D.
The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be.
D.
The higher the layer of the test pyramid, the more isolated a single automated test within the layer tends to be.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The test pyramid concept suggests that there should be more low-level tests (unit tests) and fewer high-level tests (end-to-end tests).

As we move higher up the pyramid (e.g., from unit tests to integration tests to end-to-end tests), each test covers more production code.

Higher-level tests (like end-to-end) validate larger parts of the application, including multiple units and their interactions.

This aligns with the principle that higher-level tests provide broader coverage but are fewer in number and more expensive to run and maintain.

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

A.
The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities
A.
The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities
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B.
The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.
B.
The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.
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C.
The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.
C.
The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.
Answers
D.
The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.
D.
The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.
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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A typical test plan includes various elements, such as resource requirements, test completion criteria, and suspension/resumption criteria. However, the list of product risks that have not been fully mitigated is generally not included in the test plan but rather in the risk management documentation.

The test plan focuses on planning and executing tests, including resource allocation and defining criteria for test suspension and resumption.

While risk management is crucial, unmitigated risks are typically documented in risk logs or separate risk management plans.

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?

A.
The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are
A.
The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are
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B.
Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.
B.
Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.
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C.
Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.
C.
Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.
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D.
Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.
D.
Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The correct statement is B. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, the testing quadrants help to categorize tests based on their purpose and whether they are technology-facing or business-facing, and whether they support the team or critique the product. Quadrant Q2 includes tests that are business-facing and support the team, such as automated acceptance tests produced during Behavior-Driven Development (BDD) and Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD) .

Quadrant Q3 includes business-facing tests that critique the product, such as exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing. These tests are typically manual and focus on evaluating the product from a user perspective, rather than being part of a continuous integration process.

Quadrant Q4 includes technology-facing tests that critique the product, such as performance tests, security tests, and other non-functional tests, which can be automated but are not related to unit tests produced during TDD .

Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects

[1]. It may not be possible to generate the expected workloads to run performance tests, due to the poor hardware equipment of the machines (load injectors) that should generate these workloads.

[ii]. A user's session on a web application is not invalidated after a certain period of inactivity (configured by the system administrator) of the user,

[iii]. The test team will not have an adequate requirements specification (since many requirements will still be missing) by the time test design and analysis activities should begin according to the test plan.

[IV]. Following a failure, the system is unable to continue to maintain its pre-failure operation and some data becomes corrupted.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A.
[ii] and [IV] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks
A.
[ii] and [IV] are product risks; [i] and [iii] are project risks
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B.
[ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [IV] are project risks.
B.
[ii]and [iii] are product risks. [I] and [IV] are project risks.
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C.
[i], and [iV] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks
C.
[i], and [iV] are product risks; [ii] and [iii] are project risks
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D.
[i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [IV] is a project risk.
D.
[i], [II] and [iii] are product risks, [IV] is a project risk.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

In software testing, risks are categorized into product risks and project risks. Product risks are associated with the potential of a product to fail in meeting its quality criteria. Project risks are related to potential issues that could affect the project's ability to deliver a product.

[i] is a project risk because it concerns the availability and adequacy of hardware resources for performance testing.

[ii] is a product risk because it pertains to a security and functionality issue within the web application.

[iii] is a project risk because it involves the availability of necessary requirements documentation for the testing process.

[iv] is a product risk because it relates to the system's functionality and data integrity after a failure.

Thus, statement A correctly classifies [ii] and [iv] as product risks and [i] and [iii] as project risks.

A test status report SHOULD:

A.
Specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them
A.
Specify the impediments to carrying out the planned test activities in the reporting period and the corresponding solutions put in place to remove them
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B.
Be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product
B.
Be produced as part of test completion activities and report unmitigated product risks to support the decision whether or not to release the product
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C.
Always be based on the same template within an organisation, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented.
C.
Always be based on the same template within an organisation, as its structure and contents should not be affected by the audience to which the report is presented.
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D.
Specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organisation that were chosen at the outset of the test project.
D.
Specify the lines of communication between testing, other lifecycle activities, and within the organisation that were chosen at the outset of the test project.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A test status report is a document that provides a snapshot of the testing activities and their progress during a particular period. It should include information about any impediments encountered during the test execution and the actions taken to resolve them, which helps stakeholders understand the challenges and how they were addressed .

Option B describes an activity related to test completion rather than ongoing status reporting. Option C is incorrect because the structure and contents of the report may vary based on the audience's needs. Option D, while important, is not the primary purpose of a test status report, which focuses more on the current status and impediments.

From a testing perspective, configuration management

A.
Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.
A.
Allows the expected results to be compared with the actual results.
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B.
Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.
B.
Allows the tracking of all changes to versions of the testware.
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C.
Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality
C.
Includes all activities that direct and control an organisation with regard to quality
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D.
Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.
D.
Focuses on configuring static analysis tools to choose the most suitable breadth and depth of analysis.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Configuration management in the context of testing involves the systematic control of changes to the configuration items, including testware such as test scripts, test data, and test environments. It ensures that all changes are tracked and recorded, enabling the version control and management of testware .

Option A is related to test execution rather than configuration management. Option C describes quality management in a broader sense, not specifically configuration management. Option D is specific to the configuration of tools, not the overall management of testware versions.

Consider an estimation session in which a six-member Agile team (Memb1..... Memb6) uses the planning poker technique to estimate a user story (in story points). The team members will use a set of cards with the following values: 1,2, 3,5, 8,13,21. Below is the outcome of the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers BEST describes how the estimation session should proceed?

A.
The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values most optimistic estimate - 1, most likely estimate - 3, and most pessimistic estimate - 21
A.
The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by applying the three-point estimation technique with the following input values most optimistic estimate - 1, most likely estimate - 3, and most pessimistic estimate - 21
Answers
B.
Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points.
B.
Further estimation rounds should be performed until all team members will pick the card having the same value: this value will represent the final estimate of the user story in story points.
Answers
C.
The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4> and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)
C.
The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined by calculating the average value between the most optimistic estimate of 21 story points (Memb4> and the most pessimistic estimate of 1 story point (Memb6)
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D.
Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before proceeding to another estimation round
D.
Memb6 and Memb4 which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all members before proceeding to another estimation round
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Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

In Agile teams using the planning poker technique for estimating user stories, it is common practice to have further discussions and rounds of estimation if there is a significant discrepancy in the initial estimates. This helps in reaching a consensus and ensures that all team members understand the complexity and requirements of the user story. According to the ISTQB CTFL syllabus, planning poker involves discussions to clarify differences in estimates, especially when there is a wide range of values selected. By having Memb6 and Memb4, who provided the most pessimistic and optimistic estimates, explain their reasoning, it fosters a deeper understanding and encourages the team to converge towards a more accurate and agreed-upon estimate.

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^

A.
TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.
A.
TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.
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B.
TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2
B.
TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2
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C.
TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.
C.
TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.
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D.
TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3
D.
TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

To determine the optimal test execution schedule that minimizes the number of configuration switches and respects the dependencies, we start with the initial configuration, CONF1.

TC4: It has no dependencies and runs on CONF1 (initial configuration).

TC3: Depends on TC4 and runs on CONF1. Since TC4 is already executed, we can proceed with TC3.

TC2: Depends on TC4 and runs on CONF2. We switch to CONF2 after TC3.

TC1: No dependencies and runs on CONF2. Since we are already in CONF2, we can execute TC1 next.

TC5: Depends on TC1 and runs on CONF2. Since TC1 is already executed, we can proceed with TC5 without additional configuration switches.

By following this sequence (TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5), we respect the dependencies and minimize the number of configuration switches

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