ExamGecko
Home Home / Isaca / Cybersecurity Audit

Isaca Cybersecurity Audit Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 3

Question list
Search
Search

Which of the following is the BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization?

A.
The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.
A.
The third party's security program Mows the organization s security program.
Answers
B.
The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.
B.
The organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists.
Answers
C.
The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.
C.
The third party maintains annual assessments of control effectiveness.
Answers
D.
The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.
D.
The organization's security program follows the thud party's security program.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The BEST indication of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization is that the organization maintains vendor security assessment checklists. This is because vendor security assessment checklists help the organization to evaluate and monitor the security posture and performance of their third-party vendors, based on predefined criteria and standards. Vendor security assessment checklists also help the organization to identify and mitigate any gaps or issues in the vendor's security controls or processes. The other options are not as indicative of mature third-party vendor risk management for an organization, because they either involve following or mimicking the security program of either party without considering their own needs or risks (A, D), or relying on the vendor's self-assessment without independent verification or validation C.

What is the FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments?

A.
Evaluation of implementation details
A.
Evaluation of implementation details
Answers
B.
Hands-on testing
B.
Hands-on testing
Answers
C.
Risk-based shakeout
C.
Risk-based shakeout
Answers
D.
Inventory and discovery
D.
Inventory and discovery
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The FIRST phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments is inventory and discovery. This is because the inventory and discovery phase helps auditors to identify and document the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit, as well as the cryptographic assets, systems, processes, and stakeholders involved in the cryptographic environment. The inventory and discovery phase also helps auditors to assess the maturity and effectiveness of the cryptographic governance and management within the organization. The other phases are not the first phase of the ISACA framework for auditors reviewing cryptographic environments, but rather follow after the inventory and discovery phase, such as evaluation of implementation details (A), hands-on testing (B), or risk-based shakeout C.

Which of the following describes specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy?

A.
Frameworks
A.
Frameworks
Answers
B.
Guidelines
B.
Guidelines
Answers
C.
Basedine
C.
Basedine
Answers
D.
Standards
D.
Standards
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy are known as standards. This is because standards define the minimum level of performance or behavior that is expected from an organization or its employees in order to achieve a policy objective or requirement. Standards also provide clear and measurable criteria for auditing and monitoring compliance with policies. The other options are not specific, mandatory controls or rules to support and comply with a policy, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as frameworks (A), guidelines (B), or baselines C.

Which of the following is the MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media?

A.
Review costs related to the organization's social media outages.
A.
Review costs related to the organization's social media outages.
Answers
B.
Review cybersecurity insurance requirements for the organization s social media.
B.
Review cybersecurity insurance requirements for the organization s social media.
Answers
C.
Review the disaster recovery strategy for the organization's social media.
C.
Review the disaster recovery strategy for the organization's social media.
Answers
D.
Review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts.
D.
Review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media is to review access control processes for the organization's social media accounts. This is because access control processes help to ensure that only authorized users can access, modify, or share the organization's social media accounts and content, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access or disclosure of sensitive or confidential information. Access control processes also help to protect the organization's reputation and brand image from being compromised or damaged by unauthorized or inappropriate social media posts. The other options are not as important as reviewing access control processes for the organization's social media accounts, because they either relate to costs (A), insurance (B), or recovery C aspects that are not directly related to the risks posed by social media.

The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure is known as:

A.
access control.
A.
access control.
Answers
B.
cryptograph
B.
cryptograph
Answers
C.
media protect on.
C.
media protect on.
Answers
D.
confidentiality.
D.
confidentiality.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure is known as confidentiality. This is because confidentiality is one of the three main objectives of information security, along with integrity and availability. Confidentiality ensures that information is accessible and readable only by those who are authorized and intended to do so, and prevents unauthorized or accidental exposure of information to unauthorized parties. The other options are not the protection of information from unauthorized access or disclosure, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as access control (A), cryptography (B), or media protection C.

Security awareness training is MOST effective against which type of threat?

A.
Command injection
A.
Command injection
Answers
B.
Denial of service
B.
Denial of service
Answers
C.
Social engineering
C.
Social engineering
Answers
D.
Social injection
D.
Social injection
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Security awareness training is MOST effective against social engineering threats. This is because social engineering is a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick users into revealing sensitive or confidential information, or performing actions that compromise security. Security awareness training helps to educate users about the common types and techniques of social engineering attacks, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, etc., and how to recognize and avoid them. Security awareness training also helps to foster a culture of security within the organization and empower users to report any suspicious or malicious activities. The other options are not types of threats that security awareness training is most effective against, but rather types of attacks that exploit technical vulnerabilities or flaws in systems or applications, such as command injection (A), denial of service (B), or SQL injection (D).

A cloud service provider is used to perform analytics on an organization's sensitive dat

a. A data leakage incident occurs in the service providers network from a regulatory perspective, who is responsible for the data breach?

A.
The service provider
A.
The service provider
Answers
B.
Dependent upon the nature of breath
B.
Dependent upon the nature of breath
Answers
C.
Dependent upon specific regulatory requirements
C.
Dependent upon specific regulatory requirements
Answers
D.
The organization
D.
The organization
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A cloud service provider is used to perform analytics on an organization's sensitive data. A data leakage incident occurs in the service provider's network. From a regulatory perspective, the organization is responsible for the data breach. This is because the organization is the data owner and has the ultimate accountability and liability for the security and privacy of its data, regardless of where it is stored or processed. The organization cannot transfer or delegate its responsibility to the service provider, even if there is a contractual agreement or service level agreement that specifies the security obligations of the service provider. The other options are not correct, because they either imply that the service provider is responsible (A), or that the responsibility depends on the nature of breach (B) or specific regulatory requirements C, which are not relevant factors.

One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of:

A.
policies.
A.
policies.
Answers
B.
frameworks.
B.
frameworks.
Answers
C.
caching
C.
caching
Answers
D.
hashing.
D.
hashing.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

One way to control the integrity of digital assets is through the use of hashing. This is because hashing is a technique that applies a mathematical function to a digital asset, such as a file or a message, and produces a unique and fixed-length value, known as a hash or a digest. Hashing helps to verify the integrity of digital assets, by comparing the hash values before and after transmission or storage, and detecting any changes or modifications to the original asset. The other options are not ways to control the integrity of digital assets, but rather different concepts or techniques that are related to information security, such as policies (A), frameworks (B), or caching C.

Which of the following contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness?

A.
Capability maturity model integration
A.
Capability maturity model integration
Answers
B.
Balanced scorecard
B.
Balanced scorecard
Answers
C.
60 270042009
C.
60 270042009
Answers
D.
COBIT 5
D.
COBIT 5
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The document that contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness is Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI). This is because CMMI is a framework that defines five levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and provides best practices and guidelines for improving the quality and effectiveness of processes across different domains, such as software development, service delivery, or cybersecurity. The other options are not documents that contain the essential elements of effective processes and describe an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as Balanced Scorecard (B), ISO 27004:2009 C, or COBIT 5 (D).

Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss?

A.
Backups of information are regularly tested.
A.
Backups of information are regularly tested.
Answers
B.
Data backups are available onsite for recovery.
B.
Data backups are available onsite for recovery.
Answers
C.
The recovery plan is executed during or after an event
C.
The recovery plan is executed during or after an event
Answers
D.
full data backup is performed daily.
D.
full data backup is performed daily.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The feature that provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss is that backups of information are regularly tested. This is because testing backups helps to ensure that they are valid, complete, and usable, and that they can be restored within the expected time frame and without errors or corruption. Testing backups also helps to identify and resolve any issues or problems with the backup process, media, or software. The other options are not features that provide the greatest assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as availability (B), execution C, or frequency (D) of backups.

Total 75 questions
Go to page: of 8