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Isaca Cybersecurity Audit Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 5

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Using digital evidence to provide validation that an attack has actually occurred is an example of;

A.
computer forensic
A.
computer forensic
Answers
B.
extraction.
B.
extraction.
Answers
C.
identification.
C.
identification.
Answers
D.
data acquisition.
D.
data acquisition.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Using digital evidence to provide validation that an attack has actually occurred is an example of computer forensics. This is because computer forensics is a discipline that involves the identification, preservation, analysis, and presentation of digital evidence from various sources, such as computers, networks, mobile devices, etc., to support investigations of cyber incidents or crimes. Computer forensics helps to provide validation that an attack has actually occurred, by examining the digital traces or artifacts left by the attackers on the compromised systems or devices, and by reconstructing the sequence and timeline of events that led to the attack. The other options are not examples of using digital evidence to provide validation that an attack has actually occurred, but rather different techniques or processes that are related to computer forensics, such as extraction (B), identification C, or data acquisition (D).

What is the FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack?

A.
Exploitation
A.
Exploitation
Answers
B.
Reconnaissance
B.
Reconnaissance
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C.
Maintaining a presence
C.
Maintaining a presence
Answers
D.
Creating attack tools
D.
Creating attack tools
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The FIRST activity associated with a successful cyber attack is reconnaissance. This is because reconnaissance is a phase of the cyber attack lifecycle that involves gathering information about the target organization or system, such as its network topology, IP addresses, open ports, services, vulnerabilities, etc. Reconnaissance helps to identify potential entry points and weaknesses that can be exploited by the attackers in later phases of the attack. The other options are not the first activity associated with a successful cyber attack, but rather follow after reconnaissance in the cyber attack lifecycle, such as exploitation (A), maintaining a presence C, or creating attack tools (D).

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of metrics for repotting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts?

A.
Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results
A.
Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results
Answers
B.
Regularly benchmarking the number of new vulnerabilities identified with industry peers
B.
Regularly benchmarking the number of new vulnerabilities identified with industry peers
Answers
C.
Tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them
C.
Tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them
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D.
Monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments using automated scans
D.
Monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments using automated scans
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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The BEST feature that facilitates the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts is tracking vulnerabilities and the remediation efforts to mitigate them. This is because tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts helps to measure and monitor the performance and effectiveness of vulnerability management efforts, by providing quantifiable and objective data on the number, severity, impact, status, and resolution time of vulnerabilities. Tracking vulnerabilities and remediation efforts also helps to identify and communicate any gaps or issues in vulnerability management efforts to senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not features that facilitate the development of metrics for reporting to senior management on vulnerability management efforts, but rather different aspects or factors that affect vulnerability management efforts, such as reviewing business impact analysis (BIA) results (A), benchmarking with industry peers (B), or monitoring the frequency of vulnerability assessments (D).

When reviewing user management roles, which of the following groups presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions?

A.
Privileged users
A.
Privileged users
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B.
Database administrators
B.
Database administrators
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C.
Terminated employees
C.
Terminated employees
Answers
D.
Contractors
D.
Contractors
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

When reviewing user management roles, the group that presents the GREATEST risk based on their permissions is privileged users. This is because privileged users are users who have elevated or special access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as administrators, superusers, root users, etc. Privileged users present the greatest risk based on their permissions, because they can perform actions or operations that can affect the security, availability, or functionality of systems or resources, such as installing or uninstalling software, modifying or deleting files, granting or revoking access rights, etc. Privileged users can also abuse or misuse their permissions for malicious or unauthorized purposes, such as stealing or leaking sensitive data, sabotaging systems or services, bypassing security controls, etc. The other options are not groups that present the greatest risk based on their permissions, but rather different types of users that may have different levels of access rights or permissions to systems or resources, such as database administrators (B), terminated employees C, or contractors (D).

What is the MAIN consideration when storing backup files?

A.
Utilizing solid slate device (SSDJ media for quick recovery
A.
Utilizing solid slate device (SSDJ media for quick recovery
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B.
Storing backup files on public cloud storage
B.
Storing backup files on public cloud storage
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C.
Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access
C.
Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access
Answers
D.
Storing copies on-site for ease of access during incident response
D.
Storing copies on-site for ease of access during incident response
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The MAIN consideration when storing backup files is protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access. This is because protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access helps to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the backup data, and prevent any unauthorized or malicious disclosure, modification, or deletion of the backup data. Protecting the off-site data backup copies from unauthorized access also helps to comply with any regulatory or contractual requirements that may apply to the backup data. The other options are not the main consideration when storing backup files, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as using solid state device (SSD) media (A), storing backup files on public cloud storage (B), or storing copies on-site (D).

Which of the following is the SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media?

A.
Monthly backup
A.
Monthly backup
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B.
Full backup
B.
Full backup
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C.
Differential Backup
C.
Differential Backup
Answers
D.
Incremental backup
D.
Incremental backup
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The SLOWEST method of restoring data from backup media is an incremental backup. This is because an incremental backup is a type of backup that only copies the files that have been created or modified since the previous backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup makes the restoration process slower, as it requires restoring multiple backups in a specific order and sequence, starting from the last full backup and then applying each incremental backup until the desired point in time is reached. The other options are not methods of restoring data from backup media that are slower than an incremental backup, but rather different types of backup procedures that copy files based on different criteria, such as monthly backup (A), full backup (B), or differential backup C.

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing?

A.
Budget for additional storage hardware
A.
Budget for additional storage hardware
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B.
Budget for additional technical resources
B.
Budget for additional technical resources
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C.
Top management support
C.
Top management support
Answers
D.
Surplus processing capacity
D.
Surplus processing capacity
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The MOST important factor to ensure the successful implementation of continuous auditing is top management support. This is because top management support helps to provide the vision, direction, and resources for implementing continuous auditing within the organization. Top management support also helps to overcome any resistance or challenges that may arise from implementing continuous auditing, such as cultural change, stakeholder buy-in, process reengineering, etc. Top management support also helps to ensure that the results and findings of continuous auditing are communicated and acted upon by the relevant decision-makers and stakeholders. The other options are not factors that are more important than top management support for ensuring the successful implementation of continuous auditing, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as storage hardware (A), technical resources (B), or processing capacity (D).

Which of the following is a computer-software vulnerability that is unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability?

A.
Cross-site scripting vulnerability
A.
Cross-site scripting vulnerability
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B.
SQL injection vulnerability
B.
SQL injection vulnerability
Answers
C.
Memory leakage vulnerability
C.
Memory leakage vulnerability
Answers
D.
Zero-day vulnerability
D.
Zero-day vulnerability
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A computer-software vulnerability that is unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability is a zero-day vulnerability. This is because a zero-day vulnerability is a type of vulnerability that has not been reported or disclosed to the public or to the software vendor yet, and may be exploited by attackers before it is patched or fixed. A zero-day vulnerability poses a high risk to systems and applications that are affected by it, as there may be no known defense or solution against it. The other options are not computer-software vulnerabilities that are unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability, but rather types of vulnerabilities that are known and reported to the public or to the software vendor, such as cross-site scripting vulnerability (A), SQL injection vulnerability (B), or memory leakage vulnerability C.

While risk is measured by potential activity, which of the following describes the actual occurrence of a threat?

A.
Attack
A.
Attack
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B.
Payload
B.
Payload
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C.
Vulnerability
C.
Vulnerability
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D.
Target
D.
Target
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Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Anattackis the actual occurrence of a threat, which is a potential activity that could harm an asset. An attack is the result of a threat actor exploiting a vulnerability in a system or network to achieve a malicious objective. For example, a denial-of-service attack is the occurrence of a threat that aims to disrupt the availability of a service.

In public key cryptography, digital signatures are primarily used to;

A.
ensure message integrity.
A.
ensure message integrity.
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B.
ensure message accuracy.
B.
ensure message accuracy.
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C.
prove sender authenticity.
C.
prove sender authenticity.
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D.
maintain confidentiality.
D.
maintain confidentiality.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

In public key cryptography, digital signatures are primarily used toprove sender authenticity. A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows the sender of a message to sign it with their private key, which can only be decrypted by their public key. The recipient can verify that the message was sent by the sender and not tampered with by using the sender's public key.

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