ServiceNow CTA Practice Test - Questions Answers
List of questions
Question 1
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What benefits does effective testing provide?
Choose 3 answers
Ensures compliance with industry standards
Conforms to specifications as defined in stories
Enhances overall system performance
Validates new functionality without introducing regressions
Identifies defects early in the development process
Effective testing provides several key benefits:
B . Conforms to specifications as defined in stories: Testing ensures that the developed software meets the requirements and acceptance criteria outlined in user stories or other requirement documents.
D . Validates new functionality without introducing regressions: Testing verifies that new features or changes work as expected and do not negatively impact existing functionality (regressions).
E . Identifies defects early in the development process: The earlier defects are found, the cheaper and easier they are to fix. Testing helps identify issues early in the development lifecycle.
Why not the other options?
A . Ensures compliance with industry standards: While testing can help with compliance, it's not the primary goal. Compliance often involves specific audits and assessments.
C . Enhances overall system performance: Performance testing is a specific type of testing that focuses on system performance, but it's not a general benefit of all testing.
Question 2
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What aspect of software is evaluated during non-functional testing?
Specific behaviors and outputs of the system.
The way a system operates and meets user expectations.
The creation of records and setting field values.
Functional requirements outlined in the design document.
Non-functional testing focuses on how a system operates and meets user expectations in terms of qualities like:
Performance: Response times, load handling, scalability
Usability: Ease of use, user interface design
Security: Protection against unauthorized access and data breaches
Reliability: System stability and availability
Maintainability: Ease of making changes and updates
Why not the other options?
A . Specific behaviors and outputs of the system: This is the focus of functional testing, which verifies that the system does what it's supposed to do.
C . The creation of records and setting field values: This is a specific functional aspect of the system.
D . Functional requirements outlined in the design document: These are tested during functional testing.
Question 3
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What type of testing requires human observation to measure how user-friendly, efficient, or convenient the software or product is for end-users?
Smoke testing
Usability testing
Integration testing
System testing
Usability testing is the type of testing that relies on human observation to assess the user-friendliness of a software product.
In usability testing:
Real users interact with the software or product in a realistic setting.
Observers watch and record user behavior, noting any difficulties, frustrations, or areas of confusion.
Feedback is gathered from users to understand their experiences and identify areas for improvement.
Why not the other options?
A . Smoke testing: A quick, preliminary test to ensure basic functionality is working.
C . Integration testing: Tests the interaction between different modules or components of a system.
D . System testing: Tests the entire system as a whole.
Question 4
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Which type of testing is best suited for scenarios requiring repeated execution of tasks over a long period of time?
Automated testing
Usability testing
Ad hoc testing
Manual testing
Automated testing is ideal for scenarios involving repetitive tasks over extended periods. Here's why:
Efficiency: Automated tests can execute tasks much faster than humans.
Consistency: Automated tests perform the same steps precisely every time, eliminating human error.
Endurance: Automated tests can run continuously for long durations without fatigue.
Regression Testing: Automated tests are excellent for regression testing, repeatedly checking that existing functionality hasn't been broken by new changes.
Why not the other options?
B . Usability testing: Focuses on user experience and requires human observation.
C . Ad hoc testing: Informal, unplanned testing without specific test cases.
D . Manual testing: Performed by humans, which can be time-consuming and prone to errors for repetitive tasks.
Question 5
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A system administrator, Priya, notices that certain Configuration Items (CIs) in the CMDB have not populated the required and recommended fields, impacting data integrity. Which KPI should Priya review to diagnose this issue?
Compliance
Correctness
Completeness
Relationships
The KPI that directly relates to the issue of missing required and recommended fields is Completeness.
Completeness: This KPI measures the extent to which CI records have all the necessary information filled in. Missing required or recommended fields indicate a lack of completeness in the CMDB data.
Why not the other options?
Compliance: Compliance focuses on whether CIs meet defined standards and policies, not necessarily on the completeness of their data.
Correctness: Correctness relates to the accuracy of the data in the CMDB, not whether all required fields are populated.
Relationships: Relationships measure the connections between CIs, not the completeness of individual CI records.
Question 6
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What action does the Identification and Reconciliation module perform to reduce duplicates in the CMDB?
Merges duplicate records automatically
Uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs
Validates data sources to ensure accuracy
Assigns unique identifiers to each CI
The Identification and Reconciliation (I&R) module uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs. These rules help the system determine if a CI discovered or imported from a data source already exists in the CMDB or if it's a new CI.
Here's how it works:
Identification Rules: These rules define criteria for matching CIs based on their attributes (e.g., serial number, MAC address, hostname).
Matching and Reconciliation: When new data comes in, the I&R engine applies the rules to find potential matches. If a match is found, the system can either update the existing CI with new information or flag it as a potential duplicate for review.
Why not the other options?
A: While the I&R engine can facilitate merging duplicates, it doesn't automatically merge them without human review and approval.
C: Data source validation is important, but it's not the primary function of the I&R engine in duplicate reduction.
D: Assigning unique identifiers is a function of the CMDB itself, not specifically the I&R engine.
Question 7
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Which methods can be used to populate the CMDB with data from third-party sources? Choose 2 answers
Identification and Reconciliation Engine (IRE)
Discovery
IntegrationHub ETL
Service Graph Connectors
Service Mapping
The two primary methods for populating the CMDB with data from third-party sources are:
C . IntegrationHub ETL: IntegrationHub ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) allows you to connect to various data sources, extract data, transform it to match the CMDB structure, and load it into the CMDB. This is a very flexible and powerful tool for integrating with a wide range of third-party systems.
D . Service Graph Connectors: Service Graph Connectors are pre-built integrations that connect ServiceNow to specific third-party applications and services. They provide a streamlined way to import data from these sources into the CMDB.
Why not the other options?
A: The I&R engine primarily focuses on identifying and reconciling CIs, not on the initial population of data from external sources.
B: Discovery is used to automatically discover and populate information about devices and applications within your own network, not primarily from third-party sources.
E: Service Mapping focuses on discovering and mapping the relationships between applications and infrastructure components, not on importing data from external sources.
Question 8
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What are the primary capabilities of Service Mapping in ServiceNow?
Choose 2 answers
Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Enhance cybersecurity measures across systems
Automate routine IT infrastructure updates
Oversee software licensing for various platforms
Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services
Service Mapping in ServiceNow has two primary capabilities:
A . Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB): Service Mapping helps shift the focus of the CMDB from individual components to a service-centric view. It achieves this by mapping the relationships between infrastructure components and the services they support, providing a clear understanding of how IT supports business services.
E . Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services: This is the core function of Service Mapping. It automatically discovers and maps the dependencies between applications, infrastructure (servers, databases, network devices), and the services they deliver. This creates a visual representation of the IT landscape and how it supports business services.
Why not the other options?
B: While Service Mapping can indirectly contribute to cybersecurity by providing visibility into the IT environment, enhancing cybersecurity measures is not its primary function.
C: Automating routine IT infrastructure updates is typically handled by other ServiceNow capabilities like Orchestration, not Service Mapping.
D: Software licensing management is usually handled by Software Asset Management tools, not Service Mapping.
Question 9
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What does a ServiceNow governance framework typically define?
Choose 3 answers
How decisions are made
What decisions need to be made
Who is involved in decision-making
Recurring schedules for governance meetings
How work gets done on the platform
A ServiceNow governance framework provides structure and guidance for managing the platform and its applications. It typically defines:
A . How decisions are made: The framework outlines the processes for making decisions related to the platform, such as changes to configurations, new application development, and platform upgrades. This might include approval processes, escalation procedures, and communication protocols.
B . What decisions need to be made: The framework identifies the types of decisions that require governance oversight. This might include decisions about platform strategy, architecture, security, data management, and integration with other systems.
C . Who is involved in decision-making: The framework establishes roles and responsibilities for different stakeholders in the governance process. This might include defining a governance board, steering committees, and individual roles with specific decision-making authority.
Why not the other options?
D: While recurring schedules for governance meetings are important, they are not a defining element of the governance framework itself. The framework focuses on the overall structure and processes for decision-making.
E: How work gets done on the platform is more related to process definitions and workflows within specific applications, not the overarching governance framework.
Question 10
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A new project request requires quick implementation but involves portfolio realignment. As an IT leader, who should you consult to prioritize this demand?
Demand Board
Executive Steering Board
Program Steering Committee
Technical Governance Board
In this scenario, the Executive Steering Board is the most appropriate group to consult. Here's why:
Portfolio Realignment: This implies significant changes to the overall IT portfolio, which falls under the purview of the Executive Steering Board. They have the authority to make strategic decisions about the IT portfolio and prioritize initiatives based on business goals and overall impact.
Why not the other options?
A . Demand Board: The Demand Board typically focuses on evaluating and prioritizing individual demands or requests, but they may not have the authority to make decisions about portfolio realignment.
C . Program Steering Committee: This committee focuses on the governance and oversight of specific programs, not on overall portfolio strategy.
D . Technical Governance Board: This board focuses on technical standards, architecture, and security, not on strategic portfolio decisions.
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