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ServiceNow CTA Practice Test - Questions Answers

List of questions

Question 1

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What benefits does effective testing provide?

Choose 3 answers

Ensures compliance with industry standards

Ensures compliance with industry standards

Conforms to specifications as defined in stories

Conforms to specifications as defined in stories

Enhances overall system performance

Enhances overall system performance

Validates new functionality without introducing regressions

Validates new functionality without introducing regressions

Identifies defects early in the development process

Identifies defects early in the development process

Suggested answer: B, D, E
Explanation:

Effective testing provides several key benefits:

B . Conforms to specifications as defined in stories: Testing ensures that the developed software meets the requirements and acceptance criteria outlined in user stories or other requirement documents.

D . Validates new functionality without introducing regressions: Testing verifies that new features or changes work as expected and do not negatively impact existing functionality (regressions).

E . Identifies defects early in the development process: The earlier defects are found, the cheaper and easier they are to fix. Testing helps identify issues early in the development lifecycle.

Why not the other options?

A . Ensures compliance with industry standards: While testing can help with compliance, it's not the primary goal. Compliance often involves specific audits and assessments.

C . Enhances overall system performance: Performance testing is a specific type of testing that focuses on system performance, but it's not a general benefit of all testing.

asked 14/02/2025
Lascelles Johnson
38 questions

Question 2

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What aspect of software is evaluated during non-functional testing?

Specific behaviors and outputs of the system.

Specific behaviors and outputs of the system.

The way a system operates and meets user expectations.

The way a system operates and meets user expectations.

The creation of records and setting field values.

The creation of records and setting field values.

Functional requirements outlined in the design document.

Functional requirements outlined in the design document.

Suggested answer: B
Explanation:

Non-functional testing focuses on how a system operates and meets user expectations in terms of qualities like:

Performance: Response times, load handling, scalability

Usability: Ease of use, user interface design

Security: Protection against unauthorized access and data breaches

Reliability: System stability and availability

Maintainability: Ease of making changes and updates

Why not the other options?

A . Specific behaviors and outputs of the system: This is the focus of functional testing, which verifies that the system does what it's supposed to do.

C . The creation of records and setting field values: This is a specific functional aspect of the system.

D . Functional requirements outlined in the design document: These are tested during functional testing.

asked 14/02/2025
Matthew Walsh
31 questions

Question 3

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What type of testing requires human observation to measure how user-friendly, efficient, or convenient the software or product is for end-users?

Smoke testing

Smoke testing

Usability testing

Usability testing

Integration testing

Integration testing

System testing

System testing

Suggested answer: B
Explanation:

Usability testing is the type of testing that relies on human observation to assess the user-friendliness of a software product.

In usability testing:

Real users interact with the software or product in a realistic setting.

Observers watch and record user behavior, noting any difficulties, frustrations, or areas of confusion.

Feedback is gathered from users to understand their experiences and identify areas for improvement.

Why not the other options?

A . Smoke testing: A quick, preliminary test to ensure basic functionality is working.

C . Integration testing: Tests the interaction between different modules or components of a system.

D . System testing: Tests the entire system as a whole.

asked 14/02/2025
Terence Coates
33 questions

Question 4

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Which type of testing is best suited for scenarios requiring repeated execution of tasks over a long period of time?

Automated testing

Automated testing

Usability testing

Usability testing

Ad hoc testing

Ad hoc testing

Manual testing

Manual testing

Suggested answer: A
Explanation:

Automated testing is ideal for scenarios involving repetitive tasks over extended periods. Here's why:

Efficiency: Automated tests can execute tasks much faster than humans.

Consistency: Automated tests perform the same steps precisely every time, eliminating human error.

Endurance: Automated tests can run continuously for long durations without fatigue.

Regression Testing: Automated tests are excellent for regression testing, repeatedly checking that existing functionality hasn't been broken by new changes.

Why not the other options?

B . Usability testing: Focuses on user experience and requires human observation.

C . Ad hoc testing: Informal, unplanned testing without specific test cases.

D . Manual testing: Performed by humans, which can be time-consuming and prone to errors for repetitive tasks.

asked 14/02/2025
Zeshan Tariq
40 questions

Question 5

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A system administrator, Priya, notices that certain Configuration Items (CIs) in the CMDB have not populated the required and recommended fields, impacting data integrity. Which KPI should Priya review to diagnose this issue?

Compliance

Compliance

Correctness

Correctness

Completeness

Completeness

Relationships

Relationships

Suggested answer: C
Explanation:

The KPI that directly relates to the issue of missing required and recommended fields is Completeness.

Completeness: This KPI measures the extent to which CI records have all the necessary information filled in. Missing required or recommended fields indicate a lack of completeness in the CMDB data.

Why not the other options?

Compliance: Compliance focuses on whether CIs meet defined standards and policies, not necessarily on the completeness of their data.

Correctness: Correctness relates to the accuracy of the data in the CMDB, not whether all required fields are populated.

Relationships: Relationships measure the connections between CIs, not the completeness of individual CI records.

asked 14/02/2025
Pamela Joanne Ang
31 questions

Question 6

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What action does the Identification and Reconciliation module perform to reduce duplicates in the CMDB?

Merges duplicate records automatically

Merges duplicate records automatically

Uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs

Uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs

Validates data sources to ensure accuracy

Validates data sources to ensure accuracy

Assigns unique identifiers to each CI

Assigns unique identifiers to each CI

Suggested answer: B
Explanation:

The Identification and Reconciliation (I&R) module uses identification rules to uniquely identify CIs. These rules help the system determine if a CI discovered or imported from a data source already exists in the CMDB or if it's a new CI.

Here's how it works:

Identification Rules: These rules define criteria for matching CIs based on their attributes (e.g., serial number, MAC address, hostname).

Matching and Reconciliation: When new data comes in, the I&R engine applies the rules to find potential matches. If a match is found, the system can either update the existing CI with new information or flag it as a potential duplicate for review.

Why not the other options?

A: While the I&R engine can facilitate merging duplicates, it doesn't automatically merge them without human review and approval.

C: Data source validation is important, but it's not the primary function of the I&R engine in duplicate reduction.

D: Assigning unique identifiers is a function of the CMDB itself, not specifically the I&R engine.

asked 14/02/2025
Salman Hashmi
39 questions

Question 7

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Which methods can be used to populate the CMDB with data from third-party sources? Choose 2 answers

Identification and Reconciliation Engine (IRE)

Identification and Reconciliation Engine (IRE)

Discovery

Discovery

IntegrationHub ETL

IntegrationHub ETL

Service Graph Connectors

Service Graph Connectors

Service Mapping

Service Mapping

Suggested answer: C, D
Explanation:

The two primary methods for populating the CMDB with data from third-party sources are:

C . IntegrationHub ETL: IntegrationHub ETL (Extract, Transform, Load) allows you to connect to various data sources, extract data, transform it to match the CMDB structure, and load it into the CMDB. This is a very flexible and powerful tool for integrating with a wide range of third-party systems.

D . Service Graph Connectors: Service Graph Connectors are pre-built integrations that connect ServiceNow to specific third-party applications and services. They provide a streamlined way to import data from these sources into the CMDB.

Why not the other options?

A: The I&R engine primarily focuses on identifying and reconciling CIs, not on the initial population of data from external sources.

B: Discovery is used to automatically discover and populate information about devices and applications within your own network, not primarily from third-party sources.

E: Service Mapping focuses on discovering and mapping the relationships between applications and infrastructure components, not on importing data from external sources.

asked 14/02/2025
Gerrit Struik
54 questions

Question 8

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What are the primary capabilities of Service Mapping in ServiceNow?

Choose 2 answers

Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

Enhance cybersecurity measures across systems

Enhance cybersecurity measures across systems

Automate routine IT infrastructure updates

Automate routine IT infrastructure updates

Oversee software licensing for various platforms

Oversee software licensing for various platforms

Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services

Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services

Suggested answer: A, E
Explanation:

Service Mapping in ServiceNow has two primary capabilities:

A . Create a service-centric Configuration Management Database (CMDB): Service Mapping helps shift the focus of the CMDB from individual components to a service-centric view. It achieves this by mapping the relationships between infrastructure components and the services they support, providing a clear understanding of how IT supports business services.

E . Establish links between IT infrastructure components and application services: This is the core function of Service Mapping. It automatically discovers and maps the dependencies between applications, infrastructure (servers, databases, network devices), and the services they deliver. This creates a visual representation of the IT landscape and how it supports business services.

Why not the other options?

B: While Service Mapping can indirectly contribute to cybersecurity by providing visibility into the IT environment, enhancing cybersecurity measures is not its primary function.

C: Automating routine IT infrastructure updates is typically handled by other ServiceNow capabilities like Orchestration, not Service Mapping.

D: Software licensing management is usually handled by Software Asset Management tools, not Service Mapping.

asked 14/02/2025
Ishan Rathnayaka
36 questions

Question 9

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What does a ServiceNow governance framework typically define?

Choose 3 answers

How decisions are made

How decisions are made

What decisions need to be made

What decisions need to be made

Who is involved in decision-making

Who is involved in decision-making

Recurring schedules for governance meetings

Recurring schedules for governance meetings

How work gets done on the platform

How work gets done on the platform

Suggested answer: A, B, C
Explanation:

A ServiceNow governance framework provides structure and guidance for managing the platform and its applications. It typically defines:

A . How decisions are made: The framework outlines the processes for making decisions related to the platform, such as changes to configurations, new application development, and platform upgrades. This might include approval processes, escalation procedures, and communication protocols.

B . What decisions need to be made: The framework identifies the types of decisions that require governance oversight. This might include decisions about platform strategy, architecture, security, data management, and integration with other systems.

C . Who is involved in decision-making: The framework establishes roles and responsibilities for different stakeholders in the governance process. This might include defining a governance board, steering committees, and individual roles with specific decision-making authority.

Why not the other options?

D: While recurring schedules for governance meetings are important, they are not a defining element of the governance framework itself. The framework focuses on the overall structure and processes for decision-making.

E: How work gets done on the platform is more related to process definitions and workflows within specific applications, not the overarching governance framework.

asked 14/02/2025
Salvatore Buscio
28 questions

Question 10

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A new project request requires quick implementation but involves portfolio realignment. As an IT leader, who should you consult to prioritize this demand?

Demand Board

Demand Board

Executive Steering Board

Executive Steering Board

Program Steering Committee

Program Steering Committee

Technical Governance Board

Technical Governance Board

Suggested answer: B
Explanation:

In this scenario, the Executive Steering Board is the most appropriate group to consult. Here's why:

Portfolio Realignment: This implies significant changes to the overall IT portfolio, which falls under the purview of the Executive Steering Board. They have the authority to make strategic decisions about the IT portfolio and prioritize initiatives based on business goals and overall impact.

Why not the other options?

A . Demand Board: The Demand Board typically focuses on evaluating and prioritizing individual demands or requests, but they may not have the authority to make decisions about portfolio realignment.

C . Program Steering Committee: This committee focuses on the governance and oversight of specific programs, not on overall portfolio strategy.

D . Technical Governance Board: This board focuses on technical standards, architecture, and security, not on strategic portfolio decisions.

asked 14/02/2025
ANIKET PATEL
41 questions
Total 47 questions
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