IAPP CIPP-US Practice Test - Questions Answers
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Question 1
The Video Privacy Protection Act of 1988 restricted which of the following?
Which purchase records of audio visual materials may be disclosed
When downloading of copyrighted audio visual materials is allowed
When a user's viewing of online video content can be monitored
Who advertisements for videos and video games may target
Explanation:
The VPPA was enacted to prevent the wrongful disclosure of personally identifiable information (PII) concerning any consumer of a video tape service provider. PII includes information that identifies a person as having requested or obtained specific video materials or services from a video tape service provider. The VPPA prohibits such disclosure, except in certain limited circumstances, such as with the consumer's informed, written consent, or pursuant to a law enforcement warrant, subpoena, or court order. The VPPA also allows the disclosure of the names and addresses of consumers, but not the title, description, or subject matter of any video tapes or other audio visual material, for the exclusive use of marketing goods and services directly to the consumer, unless the consumer has opted out of such disclosure. The other options (B, C, and D) are not restricted by the VPPA.Reference:
Video Privacy Protection Act - Wikipedia
18 U.S. Code 2710 - Wrongful disclosure of video tape rental or sale records | U.S. Code | US Law | LII / Legal Information Institute
IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide, Chapter 3: Federal Privacy Laws and Regulations, Section 3.5: Video Privacy Protection Act (VPPA)
Question 2
The Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 requires which activity?
Delivery of an annual notice detailing how subscriber information is to be used
Destruction of personal information a maximum of six months after it is no longer needed
Notice to subscribers of any investigation involving unauthorized reception of cable services
Obtaining subscriber consent for disseminating any personal information necessary to render cable services
Explanation:
The Cable Communications Policy Act of 1984 (CCPA) is a federal law that regulates the cable television industry and protects the privacy of cable subscribers.One of the provisions of the CCPA is that cable operators must provide their subscribers with an annual notice that clearly and conspicuously informs them of the following information12:
The nature of personally identifiable information collected or to be collected with respect to the subscriber and the nature of the use of such information
The nature, frequency, and purpose of any disclosure of such information, including an identification of the types of persons to whom the disclosure may be made
The period during which such information will be maintained by the cable operator
The times and place at which the subscriber may have access to such information
The limitations provided by the CCPA with respect to the collection and disclosure of information by a cable operator and the right of the subscriber under the CCPA to enforce such limitations
The annual notice must also state that the subscriber has the right to prevent disclosure of personally identifiable information to third parties, except as required by law or court order, and that the subscriber may sue for damages, attorney's fees, and other relief for violations of the CCPA12.
Question 3
What is the main purpose of requiring marketers to use the Wireless Domain Registry?
To access a current list of wireless domain names
To prevent unauthorized emails to mobile devices
To acquire authorization to send emails to mobile devices
To ensure their emails are sent to actual wireless subscribers
Explanation:
The Wireless Domain Registry is a list of domain names that are used to transmit electronic messages to wireless devices, such as cell phones and pagers. The purpose of the registry is to protect wireless consumers from unwanted commercial electronic mail messages, by identifying the domain names for those who send such messages. Marketers are required to use the registry to avoid sending unsolicited emails to wireless devices, which may incur costs or inconvenience for the recipients.Sending such emails without the express prior authorization of the recipient is a violation of the CAN-SPAM Act of 2003.Reference: https://www.fcc.gov/cgb/policy/domain-name-input
https://www.prnewswire.com/in/news-releases/the-wireless-registry-launches-worlds-first-global-registry-for-wireless-names-240222521.html
Question 4
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next QUESTION:
You are the chief privacy officer at HealthCo, a major hospital in a large U.S. city in state A. HealthCo is a HIPAA-covered entity that provides healthcare services to more than 100,000 patients. A third-party cloud computing service provider, CloudHealth, stores and manages the electronic protected health information (ePHI) of these individuals on behalf of HealthCo. CloudHealth stores the data in state B. As part of HealthCo's business associate agreement (BAA) with CloudHealth, HealthCo requires CloudHealth to implement security measures, including industry standard encryption practices, to adequately protect the data. However, HealthCo did not perform due diligence on CloudHealth before entering the contract, and has not conducted audits of CloudHealth's security measures. A CloudHealth employee has recently become the victim of a phishing attack. When the employee unintentionally clicked on a link from a suspicious email, the PHI of more than 10,000 HealthCo patients was compromised. It has since been published online. The HealthCo cybersecurity team quickly identifies the perpetrator as a known hacker who has launched similar attacks on other hospitals -- ones that exposed the PHI of public figures including celebrities and politicians. During the course of its investigation, HealthCo discovers that CloudHealth has not encrypted the PHI in accordance with the terms of its contract. In addition, CloudHealth has not provided privacy or security training to its employees. Law enforcement has requested that HealthCo provide its investigative report of the breach and a copy of the PHI of the individuals affected. A patient affected by the breach then sues HealthCo, claiming that the company did not adequately protect the individual's ePHI, and that he has suffered substantial harm as a result of the exposed data. The patient's attorney has submitted a discovery request for the ePHI exposed in the breach. What is the most significant reason that the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) might impose a penalty on HealthCo?
Because HealthCo did not require CloudHealth to implement appropriate physical and administrative measures to safeguard the ePHI
Because HealthCo did not conduct due diligence to verify or monitor CloudHealth's security measures
Because HIPAA requires the imposition of a fine if a data breach of this magnitude has occurred
Because CloudHealth violated its contract with HealthCo by not encrypting the ePHI
Explanation:
According to the HIPAA Security Rule, covered entities are responsible for ensuring that their business associates comply with the security standards and safeguards required by the rule. This includes conducting due diligence to assess the business associate's security capabilities and practices, and monitoring their performance and compliance. Failure to do so may result in a violation of the rule and a penalty by the HHS. In this scenario, HealthCo did not perform due diligence on CloudHealth before entering the contract, and did not conduct audits of CloudHealth's security measures. This is the most significant reason why HHS might impose a penalty on HealthCo, as it indicates a lack of oversight and accountability for the protection of ePHI.Reference:
HIPAA Security Rule
HIPAA Business Associate Contracts
HIPAA Enforcement and Penalties
Question 5
Which jurisdiction must courts have in order to hear a particular case?
Subject matter jurisdiction and regulatory jurisdiction
Subject matter jurisdiction and professional jurisdiction
Personal jurisdiction and subject matter jurisdiction
Personal jurisdiction and professional jurisdiction
Explanation:
In order for a court to hear a case, it must have both personal jurisdiction and subject matter jurisdiction. Personal jurisdiction refers to the authority of a court over the parties to a case, while subject matter jurisdiction refers to the authority of a court to hear a particular type of case. For example, a federal court may have subject matter jurisdiction over a case involving a federal law, but it may not have personal jurisdiction over a defendant who has no contacts with the state where the court is located. Similarly, a state court may have personal jurisdiction over a resident of the state, but it may not have subject matter jurisdiction over a case involving a foreign treaty.Reference:[IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 2: Introduction to U.S. Law, p. 25-26;Wex Legal Dictionary, Subject Matter Jurisdiction and Personal Jurisdiction.
Question 6
Which authority supervises and enforces laws regarding advertising to children via the Internet?
The Office for Civil Rights
The Federal Trade Commission
The Federal Communications Commission
The Department of Homeland Security
Explanation:
The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) is the primary federal agency that regulates advertising and marketing practices in the United States, including those targeting children via the Internet. The FTC enforces the Children's Online Privacy Protection Act (COPPA), which requires operators of websites and online services directed to children under 13 to obtain verifiable parental consent before collecting, using, or disclosing personal information from children. The FTC also enforces the FTC Act, which prohibits unfair or deceptive acts or practices in commerce, such as making false or misleading claims in advertising. The FTC has issued guidelines and reports on various aspects of digital advertising to children, such as sponsored content, influencers, data collection, persuasive design, and behavioral marketing. The FTC also hosts workshops and events to examine the impact of digital advertising on children and their ability to distinguish ads from entertainment.Reference:
FTC website
Digital Advertising to Children
IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide, Chapter 5: Marketing and Privacy, pp. 169-170
Question 7
According to Section 5 of the FTC Act, self-regulation primarily involves a company's right to do what?
Determine which bodies will be involved in adjudication
Decide if any enforcement actions are justified
Adhere to its industry's code of conduct
Appeal decisions made against it
Explanation:
According to Section 5 of the FTC Act, self-regulation primarily involves a company's right to adhere to its industry's code of conduct. Self-regulation is a process by which an industry or a group of companies voluntarily adopts and enforces standards or guidelines to protect consumers and promote fair competition. The FTC encourages self-regulation as a way to complement its enforcement efforts and address emerging issues in the marketplace. The FTC also monitors self-regulatory programs and may take action against companies that fail to comply with their own codes of conduct or misrepresent their participation in such programs.Reference:
Federal Trade Commission Act, Section 5 of
Self-Regulation | Federal Trade Commission
[IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide], Chapter 3, page 79
Question 8
Which was NOT one of the five priority areas listed by the Federal Trade Commission in its 2012 report, ''Protecting Consumer Privacy in an Era of Rapid Change: Recommendations for Businesses and Policymakers''?
International data transfers
Large platform providers
Promoting enforceable self-regulatory codes
Do Not Track
Explanation:
The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) issued its 2012 report, ''Protecting Consumer Privacy in an Era of Rapid Change: Recommendations for Businesses and Policymakers''1, which outlined a framework for privacy protection based on three main principles: privacy by design, simplified consumer choice, and greater transparency. The report also identified five priority areas for the FTC's privacy enforcement and policy efforts, which were:
Data brokers
Large platform providers
Mobile
Promoting enforceable self-regulatory codes
International data transfers
Do Not Track was not one of the five priority areas, but rather a specific mechanism for implementing the principle of simplified consumer choice.The report endorsed the development of a Do Not Track system that would allow consumers to opt out of online behavioral advertising across websites and platforms1.The report also noted the progress made by various stakeholders, such as the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C), the Digital Advertising Alliance (DAA), and browser companies, in advancing the Do Not Track initiative1.Reference:1: Federal Trade Commission, Protecting Consumer Privacy in an Era of Rapid Change: Recommendations for Businesses and Policymakers (March 2012), available at1.
Question 9
The ''Consumer Privacy Bill of Rights'' presented in a 2012 Obama administration report is generally based on?
The 1974 Privacy Act
Common law principles
European Union Directive
Traditional fair information practices
Explanation:
The Consumer Privacy Bill of Rights is a set of principles that the Obama administration proposed in 2012 to guide the development of privacy legislation and policies in the United States.The report that introduced the bill of rights stated that it was 'generally based on the widely accepted Fair Information Practice Principles (FIPPs)'1, which are a set of standards that originated in the 1970s and have influenced many privacy laws and frameworks around the world.The FIPPs include concepts such as individual control, transparency, security, accountability, and data minimization2.The Consumer Privacy Bill of Rights adapted and expanded these principles to address the challenges and opportunities of the digital economy1.Reference:1: Consumer Data Privacy in a Networked World: A Framework for Protecting Privacy and Promoting Innovation in the Global Digital Economy2, page 92: IAPP CIPP/US Certified Information Privacy Professional Study Guide3, page 17.
Question 10
What is a legal document approved by a judge that formalizes an agreement between a governmental agency and an adverse party called?
A consent decree
Stare decisis decree
A judgment rider
Common law judgment
Explanation:
A consent decree is a legal document that resolves a dispute between a governmental agency and an adverse party without admission of guilt or liability by either side. It is approved by a judge and has the force of a court order. A consent decree may include terms such as compliance, monitoring, reporting, or remediation. A consent decree is often used to settle civil enforcement actions brought by federal agencies such as the Federal Trade Commission (FTC), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), or the Department of Justice (DOJ).Reference:
IAPP Glossary, entry for ''consent decree''
[IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], p. 39, section 2.1.3
[IAPP CIPP/US Body of Knowledge], p. 9, section B.1.a
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