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Which of the following represents a vulnerability associated with legacy systems using older technology?

A.

Lost opportunity to capitalize on emerging technologies

A.

Lost opportunity to capitalize on emerging technologies

Answers
B.

Rising costs associated with system maintenance

B.

Rising costs associated with system maintenance

Answers
C.

Inability to patch or apply system updates

C.

Inability to patch or apply system updates

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Legacy systems using older technology often suffer from the inability to patch or apply system updates, representing a significant vulnerability. This lack of updates can leave the system exposed to known security vulnerabilities, making it an attractive target for cyberattacks. Additionally, unsupported systems may not receive critical updates necessary for compliance with current security standards and regulations. While rising maintenance costs and lost opportunities are also concerns, the primary vulnerability lies in the system's inability to be updated, which directly impacts its security posture. This issue is highlighted in various IT security frameworks, including ISO 27001 and NIST SP 800-53.

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of effective asset valuation?

A.

It protects the enterprise from paying more for protection than the net worth of the asset.

A.

It protects the enterprise from paying more for protection than the net worth of the asset.

Answers
B.

It assures that asset valuation is consistently applied to all assets across the enterprise.

B.

It assures that asset valuation is consistently applied to all assets across the enterprise.

Answers
C.

It ensures assets are linked to processes and classified based on business value.

C.

It ensures assets are linked to processes and classified based on business value.

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Effective asset valuation is crucial for several reasons, but the greatest benefit is its ability to ensure that assets are linked to processes and classified based on their business value. Here's a detailed explanation:

Linking Assets to Processes:

Understanding Asset Utilization: By valuing assets effectively, an organization can better understand how each asset is used in various processes. This linkage helps in optimizing the use of assets, ensuring that they contribute effectively to business operations.

Enhancing Process Efficiency: When assets are correctly valued and linked to processes, it enables the organization to streamline operations, reduce waste, and improve overall efficiency.

Classification Based on Business Value:

Prioritization of Resources: Effective asset valuation allows the organization to prioritize resources towards assets that hold the highest business value. This means that critical assets that support key business processes receive the necessary attention and investment.

Informed Decision Making: Accurate valuation provides management with the necessary information to make informed decisions about asset maintenance, replacement, and enhancement, ensuring that the assets continue to provide value to the business.

Risk Management:

Mitigating Financial Risks: By knowing the exact value of assets, the organization can avoid over-investing or under-investing in protection measures. This balance helps in mitigating financial risks associated with asset management.

Compliance and Reporting: Proper asset valuation ensures compliance with financial reporting standards and regulations, thereby reducing the risk of legal or regulatory issues.

The importance of linking assets to business processes and their classification based on business value is emphasized in various audit and IT management frameworks, including COBIT and ITIL.

ISA 315 highlights the importance of understanding the entity's information system and relevant controls, which includes the valuation and management of assets.

Which type of assessment evaluates the changes in technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

A.

Vulnerability assessment

Answers
B.

Threat assessment

B.

Threat assessment

Answers
C.

Control self-assessment

C.

Control self-assessment

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A Threat Assessment evaluates changes in the technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise. This process involves identifying potential threats that could exploit vulnerabilities in the system, leading to significant impacts on the organization's operations, financial status, or reputation. It is essential to distinguish between different types of assessments:

Vulnerability Assessment: Focuses on identifying weaknesses in the system that could be exploited by threats. It does not specifically evaluate changes in the environment but rather the existing vulnerabilities within the system.

Threat Assessment: Involves evaluating changes in the technical or operating environments that could introduce new threats or alter the impact of existing threats. It looks at how external and internal changes could create potential risks for the organization. This assessment is crucial for understanding how the evolving environment can influence the threat landscape.

Control Self-Assessment (CSA): A process where internal controls are evaluated by the employees responsible for them. It helps in identifying control gaps but does not specifically focus on changes in the environment or their impact.

Given these definitions, the correct type of assessment that evaluates changes in technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise is the Threat Assessment.

One of the PRIMARY purposes of threat intelligence is to understand:

A.

zero-day threats.

A.

zero-day threats.

Answers
B.

breach likelihood.

B.

breach likelihood.

Answers
C.

asset vulnerabilities.

C.

asset vulnerabilities.

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

One of the PRIMARY purposes of threat intelligence is to understand breach likelihood. Threat intelligence involves gathering, analyzing, and interpreting data about potential or existing threats to an organization. This intelligence helps in predicting, preparing for, and mitigating potential cyber attacks. The key purposes include:

Understanding Zero-Day Threats: While this is important, it is a subset of the broader goal. Zero-day threats are specific, unknown vulnerabilities that can be exploited, but threat intelligence covers a wider range of threats.

Breach Likelihood: The primary goal is to assess the probability of a security breach occurring. By understanding the threat landscape, organizations can evaluate the likelihood of various threats materializing and prioritize their defenses accordingly. This assessment includes analyzing threat actors, their methods, motivations, and potential targets to predict the likelihood of a breach.

Asset Vulnerabilities: Identifying vulnerabilities in assets is a part of threat intelligence, but it is not the primary purpose. The primary purpose is to understand the threat landscape and how likely it is that those vulnerabilities will be exploited.

Therefore, the primary purpose of threat intelligence is to understand the likelihood of a breach, enabling organizations to strengthen their security posture against potential attacks.

Which of the following is MOST likely to expose an organization to adverse threats?

A.

Complex enterprise architecture

A.

Complex enterprise architecture

Answers
B.

Improperly configured network devices

B.

Improperly configured network devices

Answers
C.

Incomplete cybersecurity training records

C.

Incomplete cybersecurity training records

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The MOST likely factor to expose an organization to adverse threats is improperly configured network devices. Here's why:

Complex Enterprise Architecture: While complexity can introduce vulnerabilities and increase the difficulty of managing security, it is not inherently the most likely factor to cause exposure. Properly managed complex architectures can still be secure.

Improperly Configured Network Devices: This is the most likely cause of exposure to threats. Network devices such as routers, firewalls, and switches are critical for maintaining security boundaries and controlling access. If these devices are not configured correctly, they can create significant vulnerabilities. For example, default configurations or weak passwords can be easily exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, leading to data breaches or network disruptions.

Incomplete Cybersecurity Training Records: While important, incomplete training records alone do not directly expose the organization to threats. It indicates a potential gap in awareness and preparedness but does not directly result in vulnerabilities that can be exploited.

Given the critical role network devices play in an organization's security infrastructure, improper configuration of these devices poses the greatest risk of exposure to adverse threats.

ISA 315 Anlage 5 and 6: Understanding IT risks and controls in an organization's environment, particularly the configuration and management of IT infrastructure.

SAP Reports: Example configurations and the impact of network device misconfigurations on security.

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern with vulnerability assessments?

A.

Threat mitigation

A.

Threat mitigation

Answers
B.

Report size

B.

Report size

Answers
C.

False positives

C.

False positives

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The primary concern with vulnerability assessments is the presence of false positives. Here's why:

Threat Mitigation: While vulnerability assessments help in identifying potential vulnerabilities that need to be mitigated, this is not a concern but an objective of the assessment. It aims to provide information for better threat mitigation.

Report Size: The size of the report generated from a vulnerability assessment is not a primary concern. The focus is on the accuracy and relevance of the findings rather than the volume of the report.

False Positives: These occur when the vulnerability assessment incorrectly identifies a security issue that does not actually exist. False positives can lead to wasted resources as time and effort are spent investigating and addressing non-existent problems. They can also cause distractions from addressing real vulnerabilities, thus posing a significant concern.

The primary concern, therefore, is managing and reducing false positives to ensure the vulnerability assessment is accurate and effective.

Which of the following are control conditions that exist in IT systems and may be exploited by an attacker?

A.

Cybersecurity risk scenarios

A.

Cybersecurity risk scenarios

Answers
B.

Vulnerabilities

B.

Vulnerabilities

Answers
C.

Threats

C.

Threats

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Control conditions that exist in IT systems and may be exploited by an attacker are known as vulnerabilities. Here's the breakdown:

Cybersecurity Risk Scenarios: These are hypothetical situations that outline potential security threats and their impact on an organization. They are not specific control conditions but rather a part of risk assessment and planning.

Vulnerabilities: These are weaknesses or flaws in the IT systems that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access or cause damage. Vulnerabilities can be found in software, hardware, or procedural controls, and addressing these is critical for maintaining system security.

Threats: These are potential events or actions that can exploit vulnerabilities to cause harm. While threats are important to identify, they are not the control conditions themselves but rather the actors or events that take advantage of these conditions.

Thus, the correct answer is vulnerabilities, as these are the exploitable weaknesses within IT systems.

Which of the following is the BEST way to minimize potential attack vectors on the enterprise network?

A.

Implement network log monitoring.

A.

Implement network log monitoring.

Answers
B.

Disable any unneeded ports.

B.

Disable any unneeded ports.

Answers
C.

Provide annual cybersecurity awareness training.

C.

Provide annual cybersecurity awareness training.

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The best way to minimize potential attack vectors on the enterprise network is to disable any unneeded ports. Here's why:

Implement Network Log Monitoring: This is important for detecting and responding to security incidents but does not directly minimize attack vectors. It helps in identifying attacks that have already penetrated the network.

Disable Any Unneeded Ports: By closing or disabling ports that are not needed, you reduce the number of entry points that an attacker can exploit. Open ports can be potential attack vectors for malicious activities, so minimizing the number of open ports is a direct method to reduce the attack surface.

Provide Annual Cybersecurity Awareness Training: While this is crucial for educating employees and reducing human-related security risks, it does not directly address the technical attack vectors on the network itself.

Therefore, the best method to minimize potential attack vectors is to disable any unneeded ports, as this directly reduces the number of exploitable entry points.

Which of the following is an example of an inductive method to gather information?

A.

Vulnerability analysis

A.

Vulnerability analysis

Answers
B.

Controls gap analysis

B.

Controls gap analysis

Answers
C.

Penetration testing

C.

Penetration testing

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Penetration testing is an example of an inductive method to gather information. Here's why:

Vulnerability Analysis: This typically involves a deductive approach where existing knowledge of vulnerabilities is applied to identify weaknesses in the system. It is more of a systematic analysis rather than an exploratory method.

Controls Gap Analysis: This is a deductive method where existing controls are evaluated against standards or benchmarks to identify gaps. It follows a structured approach based on predefined criteria.

Penetration Testing: This involves actively trying to exploit vulnerabilities in the system to discover new security weaknesses. It is an exploratory and inductive method, where testers simulate attacks to uncover security flaws that were not previously identified.

Penetration testing uses an inductive approach by exploring and testing the system in various ways to identify potential security gaps, making it the best example of an inductive method.

ISA 315 Anlage 5 and 6: Understanding vulnerabilities, threats, and controls in IT systems.

GoBD and ISO-27001 guidelines on minimizing attack vectors and conducting security assessments.

These references ensure a comprehensive understanding of the concerns and methodologies involved in IT risk and audit processes.

Incomplete or inaccurate data may result in:

A.

availability risk.

A.

availability risk.

Answers
B.

relevance risk.

B.

relevance risk.

Answers
C.

integrity risk.

C.

integrity risk.

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Incomplete or inaccurate data results in integrity risk. Here's a detailed explanation:

Availability Risk: This pertains to the accessibility of data and systems. It ensures that data and systems are available for use when needed. Incomplete or inaccurate data doesn't necessarily impact the availability but rather the quality of the data.

Relevance Risk: This involves the appropriateness of the data for a specific purpose. While incomplete or inaccurate data might affect relevance, it primarily impacts the data's trustworthiness and correctness.

Integrity Risk: This is directly concerned with the accuracy and completeness of data. Integrity risk arises when data is incomplete or inaccurate, leading to potential errors in processing, decision-making, and reporting. Ensuring data integrity means ensuring that the data is both accurate and complete.

Therefore, the primary risk associated with incomplete or inaccurate data is integrity risk.

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