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Which of the following licensing models allows the greatest number of concurrent Windows VMS to run on a host for the lowest cost?

A.
per user
A.
per user
Answers
B.
per core
B.
per core
Answers
C.
Per instance
C.
Per instance
Answers
D.
Per concurrent user
D.
Per concurrent user
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The answer to this question may depend on several factors, such as the number and type of Windows VMs, the number and type of host machines, the number and type of users, and the specific licensing terms and conditions of each licensing model. However, based on the information available from the web search results, one possible answer is per user.

Per user licensing model is a licensing model that allows a user to access Windows VMs from any device, regardless of the number of devices or VMs. Per user licensing model is available for Windows 10 Enterprise E3/E5, Windows VDA E3/E5, and Microsoft 365 F3/E3/E5. Per user licensing model may offer the greatest number of concurrent Windows VMs to run on a host for the lowest cost if the following conditions are met:

The user needs to access multiple Windows VMs from different devices, such as desktops, laptops, tablets, or smartphones.

The user needs to access Windows VMs that run different versions or editions of Windows, such as Windows 10 Enterprise, Windows 10 Pro, or Windows 7 Enterprise.

The user needs to access Windows VMs that run on different types of host machines, such as physical servers, virtual servers, or cloud servers.

The user does not need to access Windows VMs that run on dedicated hardware or have specific performance or security requirements.

According to the web search results 1, per user licensing model costs $84 per user per year for Windows 10 Enterprise E3, $168 per user per year for Windows 10 Enterprise E5, $100.80 per user per year for Windows VDA E3, and $196.80 per user per year for Windows VDA E5. These prices are based on the Open License Program and may vary depending on the volume and agreement level2

Per core licensing model is a licensing model that requires a license for each core of the processor on the host machine that runs Windows VMs. Per core licensing model is available for Windows Server 2022 Datacenter and Standard editions. Per core licensing model may offer a lower cost than per user licensing model if the following conditions are met:

The host machine has a low number of cores or a high core density.

The host machine runs a high number of Windows VMs with low resource consumption.

The host machine runs only Windows Server VMs with the same edition as the host machine.

According to the web search results 2, per core licensing model costs $6,155 for 16 core licenses for Windows Server 2022 Datacenter edition and $1,069 for 16 core licenses for Windows Server 2022 Standard edition. These prices are suggested retail prices and may vary depending on the reseller2

Per instance licensing model is a licensing model that requires a license for each instance of Windows that runs on a host machine or a VM. Per instance licensing model is available for Windows Server 2022 Essentials edition and some older versions of Windows Server. Per instance licensing model may offer a lower cost than per user or per core licensing model if the following conditions are met:

The host machine runs only one instance of Windows Server with low resource consumption.

The host machine does not need to run any other VMs or applications.

The host machine does not need any advanced features or functions that are available in Datacenter or Standard editions.

According to the web search results 2, per instance licensing model costs $501 for one server license for Windows Server 2022 Essentials edition. This price is suggested retail price and may vary depending on the reseller2 Per concurrent user licensing model is a licensing model that allows a certain number of users to access Windows VMs at the same time, regardless of the number of devices or VMs. Per concurrent user licensing model is not available for any current version of Windows or Windows Server. Per concurrent user licensing model was available for some older versions of Windows Server Terminal Services or Remote Desktop Services, but it was discontinued due to complexity and compliance issues. Therefore, per concurrent user licensing model cannot be used for running Windows VMs on a host.

Users are able to connect to the wireless network, but they are unable to access the internet. The network administrator verifies connectivity to all network devices, and there are no ISP outages. The server administrator removes the old address leases from the active leases pool, which allows users to access the internet. Which of the following is most likely causing the internet issue?

A.
THe DHCP exclusion needs to be removed.
A.
THe DHCP exclusion needs to be removed.
Answers
B.
The DHCP scope is full.
B.
The DHCP scope is full.
Answers
C.
The DHCP scope options are misconfigured.
C.
The DHCP scope options are misconfigured.
Answers
D.
The DHCP lease times are too short.
D.
The DHCP lease times are too short.
Answers
E.
The DHCP reservations need to be configured.
E.
The DHCP reservations need to be configured.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The most likely cause of the internet issue is B. The DHCP scope is full.

A DHCP scope is a range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can assign to DHCP clients on a network.

A DHCP scope has a start address and an end address, and it can also have some excluded addresses that are not available for lease. A DHCP scope can have various options, such as subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc., that are applied to the DHCP clients along with the IP address. A DHCP scope also has a lease time, which is the duration that a DHCP client can use an IP address before renewing it or releasing it. A DHCP scope can have reservations, which are fixed IP addresses that are assigned to specific DHCP clients based on their MAC addresses12

If a DHCP scope is full, it means that there are no more IP addresses available for lease in the scope.

This can happen if the number of DHCP clients exceeds the number of IP addresses in the scope, or if the lease time is too long and the IP addresses are not released or reused frequently enough. If a DHCP scope is full, any new or existing DHCP clients that request an IP address from the DHCP server will not receive one, and they will not be able to access the network or the internet12

In this scenario, users are able to connect to the wireless network, but they are unable to access the internet. The network administrator verifies connectivity to all network devices, and there are no ISP outages. The server administrator removes the old address leases from the active leases pool, which allows users to access the internet. This indicates that the DHCP scope is full, and that removing the old leases frees up some IP addresses for lease in the scope. Therefore, option B is the most likely cause of the internet issue.

A server administrator is building a pair of new storage servers. The servers will replicate; therefore, no redundancy is required, but usable capacity must be maximized. Which of the following RAID levels should the server administrator implement?

A.
0
A.
0
Answers
B.
1
B.
1
Answers
C.
5
C.
5
Answers
D.
6
D.
6
Answers
E.
10
E.
10
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The RAID level that should be implemented to maximize usable capacity without requiring redundancy is RAID 0. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both.

RAID 0 is a RAID level that splits data evenly across two or more disks without parity or mirroring.

RAID 0 does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance, but it increases usable capacity and performance by allowing parallel read and write operations.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.2, Objective 1.2

An administrator is working on improving the security of a new domain controller. A report indicates several open ports on the server. Which of the following ports should the administrator disable?

A.
135
A.
135
Answers
B.
636
B.
636
Answers
C.
3268
C.
3268
Answers
D.
3389
D.
3389
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The port that should be disabled on the firewall is port 3389. Port 3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is a protocol that allows remote access and control of a Windows system through a graphical user interface. RDP can pose a security risk if it is not properly configured or secured, as it can expose the system to unauthorized or malicious access from external sources.

Therefore, port 3389 should be disabled on the firewall unless it is needed for legitimate purposes.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.3, Objective 3.3

A security administrator ran a port scanning tool against a virtual server that is hosting a secure website. A list of open ports was provided as documentation. The management team has requested that non-essential ports be disabled on the firewall. Which of the following ports must remain open?

A.
25
A.
25
Answers
B.
443
B.
443
Answers
C.
3389
C.
3389
Answers
D.
8080
D.
8080
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The port that must remain open for a secure website is port 443. Port 443 is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), which is an extension of HTTP that encrypts and authenticates the communication between a web server and a web browser. HTTPS ensures that the data transmitted over the web is protected from eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing. Therefore, port 443 must remain open for a secure website to function properly.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Lesson 2.2, Objective 2.2

A server administrator just installed a new physical server and needs to harden the applications on the server. Which of the following best describes a method of application hardening?

A.
Install the latest patches.
A.
Install the latest patches.
Answers
B.
Disable unneeded hardware.
B.
Disable unneeded hardware.
Answers
C.
Set the boot order.
C.
Set the boot order.
Answers
D.
Enable a BIOS password.
D.
Enable a BIOS password.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A method of application hardening is installing the latest patches. Application hardening is a process of reducing the attack surface and vulnerabilities of an application by applying security measures and best practices. Installing the latest patches is one way to harden an application, as patches are updates that fix bugs, errors, or security issues in an application. By installing the latest patches, an application can be protected from known exploits or threats.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Lesson 3.5, Objective 3.5

A server is only able to connect to a gigabit switch at 100Mb. Other devices are able to access the network port at full gigabit speeds, and when the server is brought to another location, it is able to connect at full gigabit speed. Which of the following should an administrator check first?

A.
The switch management
A.
The switch management
Answers
B.
The VLAN configuration
B.
The VLAN configuration
Answers
C.
The network cable
C.
The network cable
Answers
D.
The network drivers
D.
The network drivers
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The first thing that the administrator should check is the network cable. The network cable is a physical medium that connects a server to a switch or other network device. The network cable can affect the speed and quality of the network connection, depending on its type, length, and condition.

If the network cable is damaged, faulty, or incompatible, it can cause the server to connect at a lower speed than expected. Therefore, the administrator should check the network cable for any signs of wear, tear, or mismatch, and replace it if necessary.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Lesson 2.1, Objective 2.1

An administrator is configuring the storage for a new database server, which will host databases that are mainly used for archival lookups. Which of the following storage types will yield the fastest database read performance?

A.
NAS
A.
NAS
Answers
B.
SSD
B.
SSD
Answers
C.
10K rpm SATA
C.
10K rpm SATA
Answers
D.
15K rpm SCSI
D.
15K rpm SCSI
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The storage type that will yield the fastest database read performance is SSD. SSD (Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory to store dat a. SSDs have no moving parts and can access data faster than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) that use spinning platters and magnetic heads. SSDs are especially suitable for databases that are mainly used for archival lookups, as they can provide faster response times and lower latency for read operations.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.2, Objective 1.2

A server administrator is installing a new server on a manufacturing floor. Because the server is publicly accessible, security requires the server to undergo hardware hardening. Which of the following actions should the administrator take?

A.
Close unneeded ports.
A.
Close unneeded ports.
Answers
B.
Disable unused services.
B.
Disable unused services.
Answers
C.
Set a BIOS password.
C.
Set a BIOS password.
Answers
D.
Apply driver updates.
D.
Apply driver updates.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

An action that the administrator should take to harden the hardware of a new server is to set a BIOS password. BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is a firmware that initializes the hardware components and settings of a system before loading the operating system. BIOS password is a security feature that requires a user to enter a password before accessing or modifying the BIOS settings or booting up the system. By setting a BIOS password, the administrator can prevent unauthorized or malicious users from changing the hardware configuration or boot order of the server.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Lesson 5.1, Objective 5.1

An administrator has deployed a new virtual server from a template. After confirming access to the subnet's gateway, the administrator is unable to log on with the domain credentials. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

A.
The server has not been joined to the domain.
A.
The server has not been joined to the domain.
Answers
B.
An IP address has not been assigned to the server.
B.
An IP address has not been assigned to the server.
Answers
C.
The server requires a reboot to complete the deployment process.
C.
The server requires a reboot to complete the deployment process.
Answers
D.
The domain credentials are invalid.
D.
The domain credentials are invalid.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The most likely cause of the issue is that the server has not been joined to the domain. A domain is a logical group of computers and devices that share a common directory service and security policy. A domain controller is a server that manages the domain and authenticates users and computers that want to access domain resources. To log on with domain credentials, a server must be joined to the domain and registered in the directory service. If a server has not been joined to the domain, it will not be recognized or authorized by the domain controller.

Reference: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Lesson 4.3, Objective 4.3


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