CompTIA SY0-601 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 53

The correct answer is B. CVSS.

CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System. It is a framework that provides a standardized way to measure the criticality of a vulnerability based on various factors, such as the impact, exploitability, and remediation level of the vulnerability. CVSS assigns a numerical score from 0 to 10 to each vulnerability, where 0 means no risk and 10 means the highest risk. CVSS also provides a qualitative rating for each score, such as low, medium, high, or critical. CVSS helps organizations prioritize the remediation of vulnerabilities based on their severity and potential impact12.

CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures. It is a list of publicly known and standardized identifiers for vulnerabilities and exposures in software and hardware systems. CVE provides a brief description of each vulnerability or exposure, but does not assign a score or rating to them. CVE helps organizations communicate and share information about vulnerabilities and exposures in a consistent and reliable way3 .

CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It is a model that defines the three main objectives of information security. Confidentiality means protecting data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity means ensuring data is accurate and consistent and has not been tampered with. Availability means ensuring data is accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed.

CIA helps organizations design and implement security controls and policies to protect their data and systems .

CERT stands for Computer Emergency Response Team. It is a group of experts who respond to security incidents and provide guidance and assistance to mitigate and prevent cyberattacks. CERT also conducts research and analysis on cybersecurity trends and issues, and disseminates information and best practices to the public. CERT helps organizations improve their security posture and resilience against cyber threats .

For more information on CVSS and other concepts related to vulnerability assessment and management, you can refer to [this video] or [this guide] from CompTIA Security+.

A false positive is a result that indicates a problem when there is no actual problem. In this case, the vulnerability scan flagged the domain controller with a critical vulnerability, but the domain controller does not run the application that is vulnerable. Therefore, the scan result is inaccurate and should be documented as a false positive.

A. Ensure the scan engine is configured correctly. This is not the next step, because the scan engine may be configured correctly and still produce false positives due to various factors, such as outdated signatures, network latency, or misconfigured devices.

B. Apply a patch to the domain controller. This is not the next step, because applying a patch to a system that does not have the vulnerability may cause unnecessary problems or conflicts.

C. Research the CVE. This is not the next step, because the systems administrator already researched the vulnerability and discovered that it does not affect the domain controller.

D. Document this as a false positive. This is the correct answer, because documenting false positives helps to improve the accuracy and efficiency of future scans and audits.

Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (PDF) - Netwrix, page 14.

A clean desk policy is a set of rules that require employees to clear their desks of any documents, papers, or devices that contain sensitive or confidential information when they leave their workstations. This policy helps to prevent unauthorized access, theft, or disclosure of proprietary information during facility tours or other situations where outsiders may visit the premises.

A. Clean desk policy. This is the correct answer, because a clean desk policy is a simple and effective way to mitigate the risk of exposing proprietary information during facility tours.

A secure configuration guide is a document that provides an overview of the security features and best practices for a specific product, system, or application. A secure configuration guide helps to reduce unnecessary cyber vulnerabilities and enhance overall security by applying consistent and standardized settings and policies. A security analyst can create baselines for the server team to follow when hardening new devices for deployment based on a secure configuration guide.

A. Change management procedure. This is not the correct answer, because a change management procedure is a document that describes the steps and processes for implementing, reviewing, and approving changes to an IT system or environment. A change management procedure helps to minimize the risks and impacts of changes on the system performance, availability, and security.

B. Information security policy. This is not the correct answer, because an information security policy is a document that defines the rules and principles for protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information assets within an organization. An information security policy helps to establish the roles and responsibilities of employees, managers, and stakeholders regarding information security.

C. Cybersecurity framework. This is not the correct answer, because a cybersecurity framework is a document that provides a set of standards, guidelines, and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks and improving resilience. A cybersecurity framework helps to align the business objectives and priorities with the security requirements and capabilities.

D. Secure configuration guide. This is the correct answer, because a secure configuration guide is a document that provides an overview of the security features and best practices for a specific product, system, or application. A secure configuration guide helps to reduce unnecessary cyber vulnerabilities and enhance overall security by applying consistent and standardized settings and policies.

Reference: Secure Configuration Guide, Security Technical Implementation Guide - Wikipedia.

SSO stands for Single Sign-On, which is a technology that allows users to log in to multiple websites using a single set of credentials, such as a username and password or a digital certificate. SSO eliminates the need for users to create and remember multiple accounts and passwords for different websites, and simplifies the authentication process. SSO also enhances security by reducing the risk of password reuse, phishing, and identity theft.

An internet company that has created a new collaboration application can implement SSO to allow users to log in to the application with the credentials of other popular websites, such as Google,

Facebook, or Twitter. This way, users do not have to create a new account for the application, and can use their existing accounts from other websites that they trust and use frequently. This can increase the user base and the convenience of the application.

Some examples of SSO technologies are OpenID, OAuth, and SAML. These technologies provide different ways of establishing trust and exchanging information between the websites that act as identity providers (IDPs) and the websites that act as relying parties (RPs). The IDPs are the websites that authenticate the users and provide their credentials or attributes to the RPs. The RPs are the websites that accept the users' credentials or attributes from the IDPs and grant them access to their services.

A risk control self-assessment (RCSA) is a process that allows an organization to identify, evaluate, and mitigate the risks associated with its activities, processes, systems, and products. A RCSA involves asking relevant questions to assess the effectiveness of existing controls and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need improvement. A RCSA also helps to align the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization with its strategic objectives and performance.

The application development teams have been asked to answer questions related to their applications' security posture, such as whether they receive patches from an external source, contain open-source code, are accessible by external users, or meet the corporate password standard. These questions are part of a RCSA process that aims to evaluate the potential risks and vulnerabilities associated with each application and determine how well they are managed and mitigated.

EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a technology that monitors, detects, and responds to cyber threats on endpoint devices, such as laptops, desktops, servers, or mobile devices.

EDR collects and analyzes data from endpoints to identify suspicious or malicious activities, such as malware installation, file modification, registry changes, network connections, or user actions. EDR also provides tools and capabilities to respond to threats, such as isolating infected devices, blocking malicious processes, removing malware, or restoring files.

Historically, a company has had issues with users plugging in personally owned removable media devices into corporate computers. As a result, the threat of malware incidents is almost constant.

EDR would best help prevent the malware from being installed on the computers by detecting the insertion of removable media devices and scanning them for any malicious code or files. EDR would also alert the security team of any potential infection and enable them to take immediate action to contain and remediate the threat.

CSRF stands for Cross-Site Request Forgery, which is an attack that forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated1. In this case, the attacker may have tricked the user into clicking a malicious link or visiting a malicious website that sends forged requests to the web server of the bank, using the user's session cookie or other credentials. The web server then performs the money transfer requests as if they were initiated by the user, without verifying the origin or validity of the requests.

A. SQLi. This is not the correct answer, because SQLi stands for SQL Injection, which is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application's database layer, where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution2. The output of the web server log does not show any SQL statements or commands.

B. CSRF. This is the correct answer, because CSRF is an attack that exploits the trust a web server has in a user's browser, where malicious requests are sent to the web server using the user's credentials1. The output of the web server log shows multiple GET requests with different account numbers and amounts, which may indicate a CSRF attack.

C. Spear phishing. This is not the correct answer, because spear phishing is an attack that targets a specific individual or organization with a personalized email or message that contains a malicious link or attachment3. The output of the web server log does not show any email or message content or headers.

D. API. This is not the correct answer, because API stands for Application Programming Interface, which is a set of rules and specifications that allow software components to communicate and exchange data. API is not an attack method, but rather a way of designing and developing software applications.

HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption. HSMaas allows the organization to use its own keys or generate new ones, and to control and manage them centrally regardless of where the data is stored or processed. HSMaas also reduces the latency and complexity of managing multiple encryption keys across different cloud providers, as well as the cost and maintenance of deploying physical HSM devices.

A. Trusted Platform Module. This is not the correct answer, because a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a device, such as a laptop or a server. A TPM does not offer a cloud-based solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

B. laaS. This is not the correct answer, because laaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks, over the internet. laaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

C. HSMaas. This is the correct answer, because HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption across multiple cloud providers.

D. PaaS. This is not the correct answer, because PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides a platform for developing and deploying applications over the internet. PaaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

Reference: HSM as a Service (HSMaaS) | Encryption Consulting, What Is Hardware Security Module (HSM)? | Thales.