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Checkpoint 156-215.81 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 28

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Which part of SmartConsole allows administrators to add, edit delete, and clone objects?

A.
Object Browser
A.
Object Browser
Answers
B.
Object Editor
B.
Object Editor
Answers
C.
Object Navigator
C.
Object Navigator
Answers
D.
Object Explorer
D.
Object Explorer
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The Object Explorer is the part of SmartConsole that allows administrators to add, edit, delete, and clone objects. Objects are entities that represent network elements, such as hosts, networks, gateways, services, users, etc.The Object Explorer provides a tree view of all the objects in the database and allows searching, filtering, and grouping them2.

Reference:Check Point R81 SmartConsole R81 User Guide

How do logs change when the 'Accounting' tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?

A.
Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.
A.
Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.
Answers
B.
Provides log details view email to the Administrator.
B.
Provides log details view email to the Administrator.
Answers
C.
Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.
C.
Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.
Answers
D.
Provides additional information to the connected user.
D.
Provides additional information to the connected user.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The Accounting tracking option is used to monitor the amount of data that passes through a connection. When this option is enabled on a traffic rule, the involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.This information can be used for billing or auditing purposes3.

Reference:Check Point R81 Logging and Monitoring Administration Guide

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

A.
Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.
A.
Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.
Answers
B.
Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.
B.
Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.
Answers
C.
Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.
C.
Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.
Answers
D.
Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run
D.
Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Application Control is a blade that enables administrators to control access to applications and web sites by users, groups, machines, and time.Application Control can eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk, identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment, and automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run1. However, Application Control cannot scan the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.That is the function of another blade called Content Awareness, which can inspect files based on their type, size, name, and data2.

Reference:Check Point R81 Application Control Administration Guide,Check Point R81 Content Awareness Administration Guide

What is the purpose of Captive Portal?

A.
It manages user permission in SmartConsole
A.
It manages user permission in SmartConsole
Answers
B.
It provides remote access to SmartConsole
B.
It provides remote access to SmartConsole
Answers
C.
It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources
C.
It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Internet and corporate resources
Answers
D.
It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS
D.
It authenticates users, allowing them access to the Gaia OS
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Captive Portal is a feature of Identity Awareness that allows you to authenticate users through a web browser before they access the Internet or corporate resources.Captive Portal can be used for various authentication methods, such as user name and password, one-time password (OTP), or certificate3. Captive Portal does not manage user permission in SmartConsole, provide remote access to SmartConsole, or authenticate users to the Gaia OS. Those are different functions that are not related to Captive Portal.

Reference:Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

A.
Formal
A.
Formal
Answers
B.
Central
B.
Central
Answers
C.
Corporate
C.
Corporate
Answers
D.
Local
D.
Local
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Check Point licenses are divided into two types: central and local. Central licenses are managed by a Security Management Server and can be attached to any Security Gateway managed by that server. Local licenses are tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address. Formal and corporate are not types of Check Point licenses.

Reference: [Check Point R81 Licensing and Contract Administration Guide]

Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

A.
Data Loss Prevention
A.
Data Loss Prevention
Answers
B.
Antivirus
B.
Antivirus
Answers
C.
Application Control
C.
Application Control
Answers
D.
NAT
D.
NAT
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Bridge Mode is a deployment option for Check Point Security Gateway that allows it to act as a transparent bridge between two network segments, without changing the IP addressing scheme. Bridge Mode supports most of the security features, such as Data Loss Prevention, Antivirus, Application Control, etc.However, Bridge Mode does not support NAT, because NAT requires modifying the IP addresses or ports of the packets, which contradicts the transparent nature of Bridge Mode1.

Reference:Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide

True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

A.
True, every administrator works on a different database that Is independent of the other administrators
A.
True, every administrator works on a different database that Is independent of the other administrators
Answers
B.
False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.
B.
False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.
Answers
C.
True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators
C.
True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators
Answers
D.
False, only one administrator can login with write permission
D.
False, only one administrator can login with write permission
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

SmartConsole is a unified graphical user interface that allows administrators to manage multiple Check Point security products from a single console. More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time. Every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.The changes made by one administrator are not visible to others until they are published2.

Reference:Check Point R81 SmartConsole R81 User Guide

When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

A.
Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.
A.
Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.
Answers
B.
Not reflected for any users who are using that template.
B.
Not reflected for any users who are using that template.
Answers
C.
Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.
C.
Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.
Answers
D.
Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.
D.
Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) is a protocol that allows accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over a network. User Directory integration is a feature of Identity Awareness that allows Check Point products to use LDAP servers as identity sources. When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.A User Directory template defines the settings for connecting to an LDAP server and retrieving user information3.

Reference:Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Administration Guide

Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

A.
Cloud/data Center
A.
Cloud/data Center
Answers
B.
perimeter
B.
perimeter
Answers
C.
Sandbox
C.
Sandbox
Answers
D.
Guest Network
D.
Guest Network
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Threat Prevention is a comprehensive solution that protects networks from malicious attacks by using multiple security blades, such as Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, IPS, Threat Emulation, and Threat Extraction. A Threat Prevention profile defines the actions and settings for each blade and can be applied to different network segments or scenarios. The Perimeter profile is one of the predefined profiles that uses sanitization technology to protect users from malicious files and links. Sanitization technology includes Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction blades, which can detect and remove malware from files and web content.

Reference: [Check Point R81 Threat Prevention Administration Guide]

The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security. Considering stateful Inspections and Proxies, which statement is correct?

A.
Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.
A.
Stateful Inspection is limited to Layer 3 visibility, with no Layer 4 to Layer 7 visibility capabilities.
Answers
B.
When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.
B.
When it comes to performance, proxies were significantly faster than stateful inspection firewalls.
Answers
C.
Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).
C.
Proxies offer far more security because of being able to give visibility of the payload (the data).
Answers
D.
When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.
D.
When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Stateful Inspection and Proxies are two different technologies for implementing firewall security. Stateful Inspection is a technique that inspects packets at the network layer and maintains a state table that tracks the status of each connection. Proxies are applications that act as intermediaries between clients and servers, and inspect packets at the application layer. The competition between stateful inspection and proxies was based on performance, protocol support, and security.When it comes to performance, stateful inspection was significantly faster than proxies, because it did not have to process the payload of each packet and could handle more concurrent connections1.

Reference:Check Point R81 Security Gateway Technical Administration Guide

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