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Mark works as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 Active Directory domain-based network. The domain contains one hundred Windows XP Professional client computers. Mark is deploying an 802.11 wireless LAN on the network. The wireless LAN will use Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) for all the connections. According to the company's security policy, the client computers must be able to automatically connect to the wireless LAN. However, the unauthorized computers must not be allowed to connect to the wireless LAN and view the wireless network. Mark wants to configure all the wireless access points and client computers to act in accordance with the company's security policy. What will he do to accomplish this? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. (Choose three.)

A.
Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.
A.
Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.
Answers
B.
Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key.
B.
Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key.
Answers
C.
Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.
C.
Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.
Answers
D.
Broadcast SSID to connect to the access point (AP).
D.
Broadcast SSID to connect to the access point (AP).
Answers
E.
Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Open system.
E.
Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Open system.
Answers
F.
On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network.
F.
On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network.
Answers
Suggested answer: B, C, F

Explanation:

To configure all the wireless access points and client computers to act in accordance with the company's security policy, Mark will take the following actions:

Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key. Shared Key authentication provides access control. Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all the wireless access points. Disabling SSID Broadcast and enabling MAC address filtering will prevent unauthorized wireless client computers from connecting to the access point (AP). Only the computers with particular MAC addresses will be able to connect to the wireless access points. On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network.

Answer option E is incorrect. Setting the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Open System will disable Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). This level of WEP will not provide security.

Which of the following steps are required in an idle scan of a closed port?

Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
The attacker sends a SYN/ACK to the zombie.
A.
The attacker sends a SYN/ACK to the zombie.
Answers
B.
The zombie's IP ID increases by only 1.
B.
The zombie's IP ID increases by only 1.
Answers
C.
In response to the SYN, the target sends a RST.
C.
In response to the SYN, the target sends a RST.
Answers
D.
The zombie ignores the unsolicited RST, and the IP ID remains unchanged.
D.
The zombie ignores the unsolicited RST, and the IP ID remains unchanged.
Answers
E.
The zombie's IP ID increases by 2.
E.
The zombie's IP ID increases by 2.
Answers
Suggested answer: A, B, C, D

Explanation:

Following are the steps required in an idle scan of a closed port:

1.Probe the zombie's IP ID: The attacker sends a SYN/ACK to the zombie. The zombie, unaware of the SYN/ACK, sends back a RST, thus disclosing its IP ID.

2.Forge a SYN packet from the zombie: In response to the SYN, the target sends a RST. The zombie ignores the unsolicited RST, and the IP ID remains unchanged.

3.Probe the zombie's IP ID again: The zombie's IP ID has increased by only 1 since step 1. So the port is closed.

Which of the following statements are true about security risks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

A.
They are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
A.
They are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
Answers
B.
They can be removed completely by taking proper actions.
B.
They can be removed completely by taking proper actions.
Answers
C.
They can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
C.
They can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
Answers
D.
They can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.
D.
They can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.
Answers
Suggested answer: A, C, D

Explanation:

In information security, security risks are considered an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability. In other words, security risk is a probabilistic function of a given threat agent exercising a particular vulnerability and the impact of that risk on the organization. Security risks can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks. These risks can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process. Answer option B is incorrect. Security risks can never be removed completely but can be mitigated by taking proper actions.

Which of the following statements are TRUE about Demilitarized zone (DMZ)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to the Local Area Network of an organization.
A.
The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to the Local Area Network of an organization.
Answers
B.
Hosts in the DMZ have full connectivity to specific hosts in the internal network.
B.
Hosts in the DMZ have full connectivity to specific hosts in the internal network.
Answers
C.
Demilitarized zone is a physical or logical sub-network that contains and exposes external services of an organization to a larger un-trusted network.
C.
Demilitarized zone is a physical or logical sub-network that contains and exposes external services of an organization to a larger un-trusted network.
Answers
D.
In a DMZ configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network like the Internet.
D.
In a DMZ configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network like the Internet.
Answers
Suggested answer: A, C, D

Explanation:

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes external services of an organization to a larger network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization's Local Area Network (LAN); an external attacker only has access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than the whole of the network. Hosts in the DMZ have limited connectivity to specific hosts in the internal network, though communication with other hosts in the DMZ and to the external network is allowed. This allows hosts in the DMZ to provide services to both the internal and external networks, while an intervening firewall controls the traffic between the DMZ servers and the internal network clients. In a DMZ configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network such as the Internet.

Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?

A.
Log analysis
A.
Log analysis
Answers
B.
Patch management
B.
Patch management
Answers
C.
Incident handling
C.
Incident handling
Answers
D.
Business Continuity Management
D.
Business Continuity Management
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Business Continuity Management is a management process that determines potential impacts that are likely to threaten an organization. It provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders. Business continuity management includes disaster recovery, business recovery, crisis management, incident management, emergency management, product recall, contingency planning, etc.

Answer option B is incorrect. Patch management is an area of systems management that involves acquiring, testing, and installing multiple patches (code changes) to an administered computer system. Patch management includes the following tasks:

Maintaining current knowledge of available patches

Deciding what patches are appropriate for particular systems

Ensuring that patches are installed properly

Testing systems after installation, and documenting all associated procedures, such as specific configurations required A number of products are available to automate patch management tasks, including Ring Master's Automated Patch Management, Patch Link Update, and Gibraltar's Ever guard.

Answer option A is incorrect. This option is invalid.

Answer option C is incorrect. Incident handling is the process of managing incidents in an Enterprise, Business, or an Organization. It involves the thinking of the prospective suitable to the enterprise and then the implementation of the prospective in a clean and manageable manner.

It involves completing the incident report and presenting the conclusion to the management and providing ways to improve the process both from a technical and administrative aspect. Incident handling ensures that the overall process of an enterprise runs in an uninterrupted continuity.

Jason works as a System Administrator for www.company.com Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. Sam, an employee of the company, accidentally changes some of the applications and system settings. He complains to Jason that his system is not working properly. To troubleshoot the problem, Jason diagnoses the internals of his computer and observes that some changes have been made in Sam's computer registry. To rectify the issue, Jason has to restore the registry. Which of the following utilities can Jason use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
Resplendent registrar
A.
Resplendent registrar
Answers
B.
Regedit.exe
B.
Regedit.exe
Answers
C.
Reg.exe
C.
Reg.exe
Answers
D.
EventCombMT
D.
EventCombMT
Answers
Suggested answer: A, B, C

Explanation:

The resplendent registrar is a tool that offers a complete and safe solution to administrators and power users for maintaining the registry. It can be used for maintaining the registry of desktops and remote computers on the network. It offers a solution for backing up and restoring registries, fast background search and replace, adding descriptions to the registry keys, etc. This program is very attractive and easy to use, as it comes in an explorer-style interface. It can be used for Windows 2003/XP/2K/NT/ME/9x.

Reg.exe is a command-line utility that is used to edit the Windows registry. It has the ability to import, export, back up, and restore keys, as well as to compare, modify, and delete keys. It can perform almost all tasks that can be done using the Windows-based Regedit.exe tool.

Registry Editor (REGEDIT) is a registry editing utility that can be used to look at information in the registry. REGEDIT.EXE enables users to search for strings, values, keys, and subkeys and is useful to find a specific value or string. Users can also use REGEDIT.EXE to add, delete, or modify registry entries.

Answer option D is incorrect. EventCombMT is a multithreaded tool that is used to search the event logs of several different computers for specific events, all from one central location. It is a little-known Microsoft tool to run searches for event IDs or text strings against Windows event logs for systems, applications, and security, as well as File Replication Service (FRS), domain name system (DNS), and Active Directory (AD) logs where applicable. The MT stands for multithreaded. The program is part of the Account Lockout and Management Tools program package for Windows 2000, 2003, and XP.

Which of the following are the valid steps for securing routers? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.
Use a password that is easy to remember for a router's administrative console.
A.
Use a password that is easy to remember for a router's administrative console.
Answers
B.
Use a complex password for a router's administrative console.
B.
Use a complex password for a router's administrative console.
Answers
C.
Configure access list entries to prevent unauthorized connections and traffic routing.
C.
Configure access list entries to prevent unauthorized connections and traffic routing.
Answers
D.
Keep routers updated with the latest security patches.
D.
Keep routers updated with the latest security patches.
Answers
Suggested answer: B, C, D

Explanation:

The following are the valid steps for securing routers and devices:

Configure access list entries to prevent unauthorized connections and traffic routing. Use a complex password for a router's administrative console.

Keep routers in locked rooms.

Keep routers updated with the latest security patches.

Use monitoring an equipment to protect routers and devices.

Router is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks. It is used to connect multiple networks, and it determines the path to be taken by each data packet to its destination computer. Router maintains a routing table of the available routes and their conditions. By using this information, along with distance and cost algorithms, the router determines the best path to be taken by the data packets to the destination computer. A router can connect dissimilar networks, such as Ethernet, FDDI, and Token Ring, and route data packets among them. Routers operate at the network layer (layer 3) of the Open

Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. A security patch is a program that eliminates a vulnerability exploited by hackers.

In which of the following attacks does an attacker successfully insert an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts?

A.
Session hijacking
A.
Session hijacking
Answers
B.
Denial-of-Service
B.
Denial-of-Service
Answers
C.
Man-in-the-middle
C.
Man-in-the-middle
Answers
D.
Buffer overflow
D.
Buffer overflow
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Man-in-the-middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets and then sends the information to the receiving host.

The receiving host responds to the software, presuming it to be the legitimate client.

Answer option B is incorrect. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as a network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack. Attackers perform DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to the network. The effects of a DoS attack are as follows:

Saturates network resources

Disrupts connections between two computers, thereby preventing communications between services Disrupts services to a specific computer Causes failure to access a Web site Results in an increase in the amount of spam A Denial-of-Service attack is very common on the Internet because it is much easier to accomplish. Most of the DoS attacks rely on the weaknesses in the TCP/ IP protocol.

Answer option D is incorrect. A buffer-overflow attack is performed when a hacker fills a field, typically an address bar, with more characters than it can accommodate. The excess characters can be run as executable code, effectively giving the hacker control of the computer and overriding any security measures set. There are two main types of buffer overflow attacks:

stack-based buffer overflow attack:

Stack-based buffer overflow attack uses a memory object known as a stack. The hacker develops the code which reserves a specific amount of space for the stack. If the input of user is longer than the amount of space reserved for it within the stack, then the stack will overflow. heap-based buffer overflow attack:

Heap-based overflow attack floods the memory space reserved for the programs.

Answer option A is incorrect. Session hijacking refers to the exploitation of a valid computer session to gain unauthorized access to information or services in a computer system. In particular, it is used to refer to the theft of a magic cookie used to authenticate a user to a remote server. It has particular relevance to Web developers, as the HTTP cookies used to maintain a session on many Web sites can be easily stolen by an attacker using an intermediary computer or with access to the saved cookies on the victim's computer (see HTTP cookie theft).

TCP session hijacking is when a hacker takes over a TCP session between two machines. Since most authentication only occurs at the start of a TCP session, this allows the hacker to gain access to a machine.

Which of the following is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security?

A.
IPSec
A.
IPSec
Answers
B.
IP
B.
IP
Answers
C.
PPP
C.
PPP
Answers
D.
L2TP
D.
L2TP
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password.

IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP).

Answer option B is incorrect. The Internet Protocol (IP) is a protocol used for communicating data across a packet-switched inter-network using the Internet Protocol Suite, also referred to as TCP/IP.

IP is the primary protocol in the Internet Layer of the Internet Protocol Suite and has the task of delivering distinguished protocol datagrams (packets) from the source host to the destination host solely based on their addresses. For this purpose, the Internet Protocol defines addressing methods and structures for datagram encapsulation. The first major version of addressing structure, now referred to as Internet Protocol Version 4 (IPv4), is still the dominant protocol of the Internet, although the successor, Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), is being deployed actively worldwide.

Answer option C is incorrect. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a remote access protocol commonly used to connect to the Internet. It supports compression and encryption and can be used to connect to a variety of networks. It can connect to a network running on the IPX, TCP/IP, or NetBEUI protocol. It supports multiprotocol and dynamic IP assignments. It is the default protocol for the Microsoft Dial-Up adapter.

Answer option D is incorrect. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a more secure version of Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). It provides tunneling, address assignment, and authentication. It allows the transfer of Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) traffic between different networks. L2TP combines with IPSec to provide tunneling and security for Internet Protocol (IP), Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX), and other protocol packets across IP networks.

Which of the following is a computer networking protocol used by hosts to retrieve IP address assignments and other configuration information?

A.
SNMP
A.
SNMP
Answers
B.
ARP
B.
ARP
Answers
C.
DHCP
C.
DHCP
Answers
D.
Telnet
D.
Telnet
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a computer networking protocol used by hosts (DHCP clients) to retrieve IP address assignments and other configuration information. DHCP uses a client-server architecture. The client sends a broadcast request for configuration information. The DHCP server receives the request and responds with configuration information from its configuration database.

In the absence of DHCP, all hosts on a network must be manually configured individually - a time-consuming and often error-prone undertaking. DHCP is popular with ISP's because it allows a host to obtain a temporary IP address. Answer option B is incorrect. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is a network maintenance protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite. It is responsible for the resolution of IP addresses to media access control (MAC) addresses of a network interface card (NIC). The ARP cache is used to maintain a correlation between a MAC address and its corresponding IP address. ARP provides the protocol rules for making this correlation and providing address conversion in both directions. ARP is limited to physical network systems that support broadcast packets.

Answer option A is incorrect. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) allows a monitored device (for example, a router or a switch) to run an SNMP agent. This protocol is used for managing many network devices remotely. When a monitored device runs an SNMP agent, an SNMP server can then query the SNMP agent running on the device to collect information such as utilization statistics or device configuration information. An SNMP-managed network typically consists of three components: managed devices, agents, and one or more network management systems.

Answer option D is incorrect. Telnet (Telecommunication network) is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive communications facility. Typically, Telnet provides access to a command-line interface on a remote host via a virtual terminal connection which consists of an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). User data is interspersed in-band with TELNET control information. Typically, the Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection to Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port number 23.

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