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ISC CCSP Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 33

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What process entails taking sensitive data and removing the indirect identifiers from each data object so that the identification of a single entity would not be possible?

A.
Tokenization
A.
Tokenization
Answers
B.
Encryption
B.
Encryption
Answers
C.
Anonymization
C.
Anonymization
Answers
D.
Masking
D.
Masking
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Anonymization is a type of masking, where indirect identifiers are removed from a data set to prevent the mapping back of data to an individual. Although masking refers to the overall approach of covering sensitive data, anonymization is the best answer here because it is more specific to exactly what is being asked. Tokenization involves the replacement of sensitive data with a key value that can be matched back to the real value. However, it is not focused on indirect identifiers or preventing the matching to an individual. Encryption refers to the overall process of protecting data via key pairs and protecting confidentiality.

Because cloud providers will not give detailed information out about their infrastructures and practices to the general public, they will often use established auditing reports to ensure public trust, where the reputation of the auditors serves for assurance.

Which type of audit reports can be used for general public trust assurances?

A.
SOC 2
A.
SOC 2
Answers
B.
SAS-70
B.
SAS-70
Answers
C.
SOC 3
C.
SOC 3
Answers
D.
SOC 1
D.
SOC 1
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

SOC Type 3 audit reports are very similar to SOC Type 2, with the exception that they are intended for general release and public audiences.SAS-70 audits have been deprecated. SOC Type 1 audit reports have a narrow scope and are intended for very limited release, whereas SOC Type 2 audit reports are intended for wider audiences but not general release.

Which of the following concepts is NOT one of the core components to an encryption system architecture?

A.
Software
A.
Software
Answers
B.
Network
B.
Network
Answers
C.
Keys
C.
Keys
Answers
D.
Data
D.
Data
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The network utilized is not one of the key components of an encryption system architecture. In fact, a network is not even required for encryption systems or the processing and protection of data. The data, software used for the encryption engine itself, and the keys used to implement the encryption are all core components of an encryption system architecture.

For optimal security, trust zones are used for network segmentation and isolation. They allow for the separation of various systems and tiers, each with its own security level.

Which of the following is typically used to allow administrative personnel access to trust zones?

A.
IPSec
A.
IPSec
Answers
B.
SSH
B.
SSH
Answers
C.
VPN
C.
VPN
Answers
D.
TLS
D.
TLS
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Virtual private networks (VPNs) are used to provide administrative personnel with secure communication channels through security systems and into trust zones.

They allow staff who perform system administration tasks to have access to ports and systems that are not allowed from the public Internet. IPSec is an encryption protocol for point-to-point communications at the network level, and may be used within a trust zone but not to give access into a trust zone. TLS enables encryption of communications between systems and services and would likely be used to secure the VPN communications, but it does not represent the overall concept being asked for in the question. SSH allows for secure shell access to systems, but not for general access into trust zones.

Which of the following is NOT a major regulatory framework?

A.
PCI DSS
A.
PCI DSS
Answers
B.
HIPAA
B.
HIPAA
Answers
C.
SOX
C.
SOX
Answers
D.
FIPS 140-2
D.
FIPS 140-2
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

FIPS 140-2 is a United States certification standard for cryptographic modules, and it provides guidance and requirements for their use based on the requirements of the data classification. However, these are not actual regulatory requirements. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), and the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) are all major regulatory frameworks either by law or specific to an industry.

As part of the auditing process, getting a report on the deviations between intended configurations and actual policy is often crucial for an organization.

What term pertains to the process of generating such a report?

A.
Deficiencies
A.
Deficiencies
Answers
B.
Findings
B.
Findings
Answers
C.
Gap analysis
C.
Gap analysis
Answers
D.
Errors
D.
Errors
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The gap analysis determines if there are any differences between the actual configurations in use on systems and the policies that govern what the configurations are expected or mandated to be. The other terms provided are all similar to the correct answer ("findings" in particular is often used to articulate deviations in configurations), but gap analysis is the official term used.

An audit scope statement defines the limits and outcomes from an audit.

Which of the following would NOT be included as part of an audit scope statement?

A.
Reports
A.
Reports
Answers
B.
Certification
B.
Certification
Answers
C.
Billing
C.
Billing
Answers
D.
Exclusions
D.
Exclusions
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Billing for an audit, or other cost-related items, would not be part of an audit scope statement and would instead be handled prior to the actual audit as part of the contract between the organization and auditors. Reports, exclusions to the scope of the audit, and required certifications on behalf of the systems or auditors are all crucial elements of an audit scope statement.

What concept and operational process must be spelled out clearly, as far as roles and responsibilities go, between the cloud provider and cloud customer for the mitigation of any problems or security events?

A.
Incident response
A.
Incident response
Answers
B.
Problem management
B.
Problem management
Answers
C.
Change management
C.
Change management
Answers
D.
Conflict response
D.
Conflict response
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Incident response is the process through which security or operational issues are handled, including and coordination with and communication to the appropriate stakeholders. None of the other terms provided is the correct response.

Your new CISO is placing increased importance and focus on regulatory compliance as your applications and systems move into cloud environments.

Which of the following would NOT be a major focus of yours as you develop a project plan to focus on regulatory compliance?

A.
Data in transit
A.
Data in transit
Answers
B.
Data in use
B.
Data in use
Answers
C.
Data at rest
C.
Data at rest
Answers
D.
Data custodian
D.
Data custodian
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The jurisdictions where data is being stored, processed, or consumed are the ones that dictate the regulatory frameworks and compliance requirements, regardless of who the data owner or custodian might be. The other concepts for protecting data would all play a prominent role in regulatory compliance with a move to the cloud environment. Each concept needs to be evaluated based on the new configurations as well as any potential changes in jurisdiction or requirements introduced with the move to a cloud.

Cloud systems are increasingly used for BCDR solutions for organizations.

What aspect of cloud computing makes their use for BCDR the most attractive?

A.
On-demand self-service
A.
On-demand self-service
Answers
B.
Measured service
B.
Measured service
Answers
C.
Portability
C.
Portability
Answers
D.
Broad network access
D.
Broad network access
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) solutions largely sit idle until they are actually needed. This traditionally has led to increased costs for an organization because physical hardware must be purchased and operational but is not used. By using a cloud system, an organization will only pay for systems when they are being used and only for the duration of use, thus eliminating the need for extra hardware and costs. Portability is the ability to easily move services among different cloud providers. Broad network access allows access to users and staff from anywhere and from different clients, and although this would be important for a BCDR situation, it is not the best answer in this case. On-demand self-service allows users to provision services automatically and when needed, and although this too would be important for BCDR situations, it is not the best answer because it does not address costs or the biggest benefits to an organization.

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