ExamGecko

Palo Alto Networks PCDRA Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 7

Question list
Search
Search

What is by far the most common tactic used by ransomware to shut down a victim's operation?

A.
preventing the victim from being able to access APIs to cripple infrastructure
A.
preventing the victim from being able to access APIs to cripple infrastructure
Answers
B.
denying traffic out of the victims network until payment is received
B.
denying traffic out of the victims network until payment is received
Answers
C.
restricting access to administrative accounts to the victim
C.
restricting access to administrative accounts to the victim
Answers
D.
encrypting certain files to prevent access by the victim
D.
encrypting certain files to prevent access by the victim
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Ransomware is a type of malicious software, or malware, that encrypts certain files or data on the victim's system or network and prevents them from accessing their data until they pay a ransom. This is by far the most common tactic used by ransomware to shut down a victim's operation, as it can cause costly disruptions, data loss, and reputational damage. Ransomware can affect individual users, businesses, and organizations of all kinds. Ransomware can spread through various methods, such as phishing emails, malicious attachments, compromised websites, or network vulnerabilities. Some ransomware variants can also self-propagate and infect other devices or networks. Ransomware authors typically demand payment in cryptocurrency or other untraceable methods, and may threaten to delete or expose the encrypted data if the ransom is not paid within a certain time frame. However, paying the ransom does not guarantee that the files will be decrypted or that the attackers will not target the victim again.Therefore, the best way to protect against ransomware is to prevent infection in the first place, and to have a backup of the data in case of an attack1234

What is Ransomware? | How to Protect Against Ransomware in 2023

Ransomware - Wikipedia

What is ransomware? | Ransomware meaning | Cloudflare

[What Is Ransomware? | Ransomware.org]

[Ransomware --- FBI]

Cortex XDR Analytics can alert when detecting activity matching the following MITRE ATT&CKTM techniques.

A.
Exfiltration, Command and Control, Collection
A.
Exfiltration, Command and Control, Collection
Answers
B.
Exfiltration, Command and Control, Privilege Escalation
B.
Exfiltration, Command and Control, Privilege Escalation
Answers
C.
Exfiltration, Command and Control, Impact
C.
Exfiltration, Command and Control, Impact
Answers
D.
Exfiltration, Command and Control, Lateral Movement
D.
Exfiltration, Command and Control, Lateral Movement
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Cortex XDR Analytics is a feature of Cortex XDR that leverages machine learning and behavioral analytics to detect and alert on malicious activity across the network and endpoint layers. Cortex XDR Analytics can alert when detecting activity matching the following MITRE ATT&CKTM techniques: Exfiltration, Command and Control, Lateral Movement, Execution, Persistence, Privilege Escalation, Defense Evasion, Credential Access, Discovery, and Collection. However, among the options given in the question, the correct answer is D, Exfiltration, Command and Control, Lateral Movement. These are three of the most critical techniques that indicate an advanced and persistent threat (APT) in the environment. Exfiltration refers to the technique of transferring data or information from the compromised system or network to an external location controlled by the adversary. Command and Control refers to the technique of communicating with the compromised system or network to provide instructions, receive data, or update malware. Lateral Movement refers to the technique of moving from one system or network to another within the same environment, usually to gain access to more resources or data. Cortex XDR Analytics can alert on these techniques by analyzing various data sources, such as network traffic, firewall logs, endpoint events, and threat intelligence, and applying behavioral models, anomaly detection, and correlation rules.Cortex XDR Analytics can also map the alerts to the corresponding MITRE ATT&CKTM techniques and provide additional context and visibility into the attack chain1234

Cortex XDR Analytics

MITRE ATT&CKTM

Cortex XDR Analytics MITRE ATT&CKTM Techniques

Cortex XDR Analytics Alert Categories

When selecting multiple Incidents at a time, what options are available from the menu when a user right-clicks the incidents? (Choose two.)

A.
Assign incidents to an analyst in bulk.
A.
Assign incidents to an analyst in bulk.
Answers
B.
Change the status of multiple incidents.
B.
Change the status of multiple incidents.
Answers
C.
Investigate several Incidents at once.
C.
Investigate several Incidents at once.
Answers
D.
Delete the selected Incidents.
D.
Delete the selected Incidents.
Answers
Suggested answer: A, B

Explanation:

When selecting multiple incidents at a time, the options that are available from the menu when a user right-clicks the incidents are: Assign incidents to an analyst in bulk and Change the status of multiple incidents. These options allow the user to perform bulk actions on the selected incidents, such as assigning them to a specific analyst or changing their status to open, in progress, resolved, or closed. These options can help the user to manage and prioritize the incidents more efficiently and effectively. To use these options, the user needs to select the incidents from the incident table, right-click on them, and choose the desired option from the menu.The user can also use keyboard shortcuts to perform these actions, such as Ctrl+A to select all incidents, Ctrl+Shift+A to assign incidents to an analyst, and Ctrl+Shift+S to change the status of incidents12

Assign Incidents to an Analyst in Bulk

Change the Status of Multiple Incidents

A file is identified as malware by the Local Analysis module whereas WildFire verdict is Benign, Assuming WildFire is accurate. Which statement is correct for the incident?

A.
It is true positive.
A.
It is true positive.
Answers
B.
It is false positive.
B.
It is false positive.
Answers
C.
It is a false negative.
C.
It is a false negative.
Answers
D.
It is true negative.
D.
It is true negative.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A false positive is a situation where a file or activity is incorrectly identified as malicious by a security tool, when in fact it is benign or harmless. A false positive can cause unnecessary alerts, disruptions, or remediation actions, and reduce the confidence and efficiency of the security system. In this question, a file is identified as malware by the Local Analysis module, whereas WildFire verdict is Benign, assuming WildFire is accurate. This means that the Local Analysis module has made a mistake and flagged a legitimate file as malicious, while WildFire has correctly determined that the file is safe. Therefore, this is an example of a false positive. The Local Analysis module is a feature of the Cortex XDR agent that uses a static set of pattern-matching rules and a statistical model to determine if an unknown file is likely to be malware. The Local Analysis module can provide a fast and offline verdict for files that are not yet analyzed by WildFire, but it is not as accurate or comprehensive as WildFire, which uses dynamic analysis and machine learning to examine the behavior and characteristics of files in a sandbox environment. WildFire verdicts are considered more reliable and authoritative than Local Analysis verdicts, and can override them in case of a discrepancy.Therefore, if a file is identified as malware by the Local Analysis module, but as Benign by WildFire, the WildFire verdict should be trusted and the Local Analysis verdict should be disregarded123

False positive (security) - Wikipedia

Local Analysis

WildFire Overview

What is the outcome of creating and implementing an alert exclusion?

A.
The Cortex XDR agent will allow the process that was blocked to run on the endpoint.
A.
The Cortex XDR agent will allow the process that was blocked to run on the endpoint.
Answers
B.
The Cortex XDR console will hide those alerts.
B.
The Cortex XDR console will hide those alerts.
Answers
C.
The Cortex XDR agent will not create an alert for this event in the future.
C.
The Cortex XDR agent will not create an alert for this event in the future.
Answers
D.
The Cortex XDR console will delete those alerts and block ingestion of them in the future.
D.
The Cortex XDR console will delete those alerts and block ingestion of them in the future.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The outcome of creating and implementing an alert exclusion is that the Cortex XDR console will hide those alerts that match the exclusion criteria. An alert exclusion is a policy that allows you to filter out alerts that are not relevant, false positives, or low priority, and focus on the alerts that require your attention. When you create an alert exclusion, you can specify the criteria that define which alerts you want to exclude, such as alert name, severity, source, or endpoint. After you create an alert exclusion, Cortex XDR will hide any future alerts that match the criteria, and exclude them from incidents and search query results. However, the alert exclusion does not affect the behavior of the Cortex XDR agent or the security policy on the endpoint. The Cortex XDR agent will still create an alert for the event and apply the appropriate action, such as blocking or quarantining, according to the security policy. The alert exclusion only affects the visibility of the alert on the Cortex XDR console, not the actual protection of the endpoint.Therefore, the correct answer is B, the Cortex XDR console will hide those alerts12

Alert Exclusions

Create an Alert Exclusion Policy

Which statement is true for Application Exploits and Kernel Exploits?

A.
The ultimate goal of any exploit is to reach the application.
A.
The ultimate goal of any exploit is to reach the application.
Answers
B.
Kernel exploits are easier to prevent then application exploits.
B.
Kernel exploits are easier to prevent then application exploits.
Answers
C.
The ultimate goal of any exploit is to reach the kernel.
C.
The ultimate goal of any exploit is to reach the kernel.
Answers
D.
Application exploits leverage kernel vulnerability.
D.
Application exploits leverage kernel vulnerability.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The ultimate goal of any exploit is to reach the kernel, which is the core component of the operating system that has the highest level of privileges and access to the hardware resources. Application exploits are attacks that target vulnerabilities in specific applications, such as web browsers, email clients, or office suites. Kernel exploits are attacks that target vulnerabilities in the kernel itself, such as memory corruption, privilege escalation, or code execution. Kernel exploits are more difficult to prevent and detect than application exploits, because they can bypass security mechanisms and hide their presence from the user and the system.Reference:

Palo Alto Networks Certified Detection and Remediation Analyst (PCDRA) Study Guide, page 8

Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR Documentation, Exploit Protection Overview

To create a BIOC rule with XQL query you must at a minimum filter on which field in order for it to be a valid BIOC rule?

A.
causality_chain
A.
causality_chain
Answers
B.
endpoint_name
B.
endpoint_name
Answers
C.
threat_event
C.
threat_event
Answers
D.
event_type
D.
event_type
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

To create a BIOC rule with XQL query, you must at a minimum filter on theevent_typefield in order for it to be a valid BIOC rule. The event_type field indicates the type of event that triggered the alert, such as PROCESS, FILE, REGISTRY, NETWORK, or USER_ACCOUNT. Filtering on this field helps you narrow down the scope of your query and focus on the relevant events for your use case. Other fields, such as causality_chain, endpoint_name, threat_event, are optional and can be used to further refine your query or display additional information in the alert.Reference:

Palo Alto Networks Certified Detection and Remediation Analyst (PCDRA) Study Guide, page 9

Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR Documentation, BIOC Rule Query Syntax

Which of the following is an example of a successful exploit?

A.
connecting unknown media to an endpoint that copied malware due to Autorun.
A.
connecting unknown media to an endpoint that copied malware due to Autorun.
Answers
B.
a user executing code which takes advantage of a vulnerability on a local service.
B.
a user executing code which takes advantage of a vulnerability on a local service.
Answers
C.
identifying vulnerable services on a server.
C.
identifying vulnerable services on a server.
Answers
D.
executing a process executable for well-known and signed software.
D.
executing a process executable for well-known and signed software.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A successful exploit is a piece of software or code that takes advantage of a vulnerability and executes malicious actions on the target system. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in a software or hardware component that can be exploited by an attacker. A successful exploit is one that achieves its intended goal, such as gaining unauthorized access, executing arbitrary code, escalating privileges, or compromising data.

In the given options, only B is an example of a successful exploit, because it involves a user executing code that exploits a vulnerability on a local service, such as a web server, a database, or a network protocol. This could allow the attacker to gain control over the service, access sensitive information, or perform other malicious actions.

Option A is not a successful exploit, because it involves connecting unknown media to an endpoint that copied malware due to Autorun. Autorun is a feature that automatically runs a program or script when a removable media, such as a USB drive, is inserted into a computer. This feature can be abused by malware authors to spread their malicious code, but it is not an exploit in itself. The malware still needs to exploit a vulnerability on the endpoint to execute its payload and cause damage.

Option C is not a successful exploit, because it involves identifying vulnerable services on a server. This is a step in the reconnaissance phase of an attack, where the attacker scans the target system for potential vulnerabilities that can be exploited. However, this does not mean that the attacker has successfully exploited any of the vulnerabilities, or that the vulnerabilities are even exploitable.

Option D is not a successful exploit, because it involves executing a process executable for well-known and signed software. This is a legitimate action that does not exploit any vulnerability or cause any harm. Well-known and signed software are programs that are widely used and trusted, and have a digital signature that verifies their authenticity and integrity. Executing such software does not pose a security risk, unless the software itself is malicious or compromised.

Palo Alto Networks Certified Detection and Remediation Analyst (PCDRA) Study Guide, page 8

What Is an Exploit? Definition, Types, and Prevention Measures(https://heimdalsecurity.com/blog/what-is-an-exploit/)

Exploit Definition & Meaning - Merriam-Webster(https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/exploit)

Which of the following represents the correct relation of alerts to incidents?

A.
Only alerts with the same host are grouped together into one Incident in a given time frame.
A.
Only alerts with the same host are grouped together into one Incident in a given time frame.
Answers
B.
Alerts that occur within a three-hour time frame are grouped together into one Incident.
B.
Alerts that occur within a three-hour time frame are grouped together into one Incident.
Answers
C.
Alerts with same causality chains that occur within a given time frame are grouped together into an Incident.
C.
Alerts with same causality chains that occur within a given time frame are grouped together into an Incident.
Answers
D.
Every alert creates a new Incident.
D.
Every alert creates a new Incident.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The correct relation of alerts to incidents is that alerts with same causality chains that occur within a given time frame are grouped together into an incident. A causality chain is a sequence of events that are related to the same malicious activity, such as a malware infection, a lateral movement, or a data exfiltration. Cortex XDR uses a set of rules that take into account different attributes of the alerts, such as the alert source, type, and time period, to determine if they belong to the same causality chain.By grouping related alerts into incidents, Cortex XDR reduces the number of individual events to review and provides a complete picture of the attack with rich investigative details1.

Option A is incorrect, because alerts with the same host are not necessarily grouped together into one incident in a given time frame. Alerts with the same host may belong to different causality chains, or may be unrelated to any malicious activity. For example, if a host has a malware infection and a network anomaly, these alerts may not be grouped into the same incident, unless they are part of the same attack.

Option B is incorrect, because alerts that occur within a three hour time frame are not always grouped together into one incident. The time frame is not the only criterion for grouping alerts into incidents. Alerts that occur within a three hour time frame may belong to different causality chains, or may be unrelated to any malicious activity. For example, if a host has a file download and a registry modification within a three hour time frame, these alerts may not be grouped into the same incident, unless they are part of the same attack.

Option D is incorrect, because every alert does not create a new incident. Creating a new incident for every alert would result in alert fatigue and inefficient investigations. Cortex XDR aims to reduce the number of incidents by grouping related alerts into one incident, based on their causality chains and other attributes.

Palo Alto Networks Certified Detection and Remediation Analyst (PCDRA) Study Guide, page 9

Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR Documentation, Incident Management Overview2

Cortex XDR: Stop Breaches with AI-Powered Cybersecurity1

Which of the following protection modules is checked first in the Cortex XDR Windows agent malware protection flow?

A.
Hash Verdict Determination
A.
Hash Verdict Determination
Answers
B.
Behavioral Threat Protection
B.
Behavioral Threat Protection
Answers
C.
Restriction Policy
C.
Restriction Policy
Answers
D.
Child Process Protection
D.
Child Process Protection
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The first protection module that is checked in the Cortex XDR Windows agent malware protection flow is the Hash Verdict Determination. This module compares the hash of the executable file that is about to run on the endpoint with a list of known malicious hashes stored in the Cortex XDR cloud. If the hash matches a malicious hash, the agent blocks the execution and generates an alert.If the hash does not match a malicious hash, the agent proceeds to the next protection module, which is the Restriction Policy1.

The Hash Verdict Determination module is the first line of defense against malware, as it can quickly and efficiently prevent known threats from running on the endpoint. However, this module cannot protect against unknown or zero-day threats, which have no known hash signature.Therefore, the Cortex XDR agent relies on other protection modules, such as Behavioral Threat Protection, Child Process Protection, and Exploit Protection, to detect and block malicious behaviors and exploits that may occur during the execution of the file1.

Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR Documentation, File Analysis and Protection Flow

Total 91 questions
Go to page: of 10