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A company is moving to new location. The systems administrator has provided the following server room requirements to the facilities staff:

Consistent power levels in case of brownouts or voltage spikes A minimum of 30 minutes runtime following a power outage

Ability to trigger graceful shutdowns of critical systems

Which of the following would BEST meet the requirements?

A.
Maintaining a standby, gas-powered generator
A.
Maintaining a standby, gas-powered generator
Answers
B.
Using large surge suppressors on computer equipment
B.
Using large surge suppressors on computer equipment
Answers
C.
Configuring managed PDUs to monitor power levels
C.
Configuring managed PDUs to monitor power levels
Answers
D.
Deploying an appropriately sized, network-connected UPS device
D.
Deploying an appropriately sized, network-connected UPS device
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) device is a battery backup system that can provide consistent power levels in case of brownouts or voltage spikes. It can also provide a minimum of 30 minutes runtime following a power outage, depending on the size and load of the device. A network- connected UPS device can also communicate with critical systems and trigger graceful shutdowns if the battery level is low or the power is not restored.

Which of the following would most likely include language prohibiting end users from accessing personal email from a company device?

A.
SLA
A.
SLA
Answers
B.
BPA
B.
BPA
Answers
C.
NDA
C.
NDA
Answers
D.
AUP
D.
AUP
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

AUP or Acceptable Use Policy is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using a company’s IT resources, such as devices, networks, internet, email, etc. It usually includes language prohibiting end users from accessing personal email from a company device, as well as other activities that may compromise security or productivity1.

https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/governance-risk-and-compliance/what-are-sla-mou-bpa-and- nda/ 3: https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/agreement-types/ 1:

https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2471/acceptable-use-policy-aup

Which of the following describes software on network hardware that needs to be updated on a rou- tine basis to help address possible vulnerabilities?

A.
Vendor management
A.
Vendor management
Answers
B.
Application programming interface
B.
Application programming interface
Answers
C.
Vanishing
C.
Vanishing
Answers
D.
Encryption strength
D.
Encryption strength
Answers
E.
Firmware
E.
Firmware
Answers
Suggested answer: E

Explanation:

Firmware is software that allows your computer to communicate with hardware devices, such as network routers, switches, or firewalls. Firmware updates can fix bugs, improve performance, and enhance security features. Without firmware updates, the devices you connect to your network might not work properly or might be vulnerable to attacks1. You can have Windows automatically download recommended drivers and firmware updates for your hardware devices1, or you can use a network monitoring software to keep track of the firmware status of your devices2. You should also follow the best practices for keeping devices and software up to date, such as enforcing automatic updates, monitoring update status, and testing updates before deploying them

Which of the following would be best to ensure data is saved to a location on a server, is easily scaled, and is centrally monitored?

A.
Edge computing
A.
Edge computing
Answers
B.
Microservices
B.
Microservices
Answers
C.
Containers
C.
Containers
Answers
D.
Thin client
D.
Thin client
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Containers are a method of virtualization that allow you to run multiple isolated applications on a single server. Containers are lightweight, portable, and scalable, which means they can save resources, improve performance, and simplify deployment. Containers also enable centralized monitoring and management of the applications running on them, using tools such as Docker or Kubernetes. Containers are different from edge computing, which is a distributed computing paradigm that brings computation and data storage closer to the location where it is needed. Microservices are a software architecture style that breaks down complex applications into smaller, independent services that communicate with each other. Thin clients are devices that rely on a server to perform most of the processing tasks and only provide a user interface.

A penetration tester was able to compromise a host using previously captured network traffic. Which of the following is the result of this action?

A.
Integer overflow
A.
Integer overflow
Answers
B.
Race condition
B.
Race condition
Answers
C.
Memory leak
C.
Memory leak
Answers
D.
Replay attack
D.
Replay attack
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A replay attack is a form of network attack in which valid data transmission is maliciously or fraudulently repeated or delayed12. This can allow an attacker to compromise a host by resending a previously captured message, such as a password or a session token, that looks legitimate to the receiver1. A replay attack can be prevented by using methods such as random session keys, timestamps, or one-time passwords that expire after use12. A replay attack is different from an integer overflow, which is a type of software vulnerability that occurs when an arithmetic operation attempts to create a numeric value that is too large to be represented within the available storage space3. A race condition is another type of software vulnerability that occurs when multiple processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently, and the outcome depends on the order of execution3. A memory leak is a type of software defect that occurs when a program fails to release memory that is no longer needed, causing the program to consume more memory than necessary and potentially affecting the performance or stability of the system3.

An organization needs to implement more stringent controls over administrator/root credentials and service accounts. Requirements for the project include:

* Check-in/checkout of credentials

* The ability to use but not know the password

* Automated password changes

* Logging of access to credentials

Which of the following solutions would meet the requirements?

A.
OAuth 2.0
A.
OAuth 2.0
Answers
B.
Secure Enclave
B.
Secure Enclave
Answers
C.
A privileged access management system
C.
A privileged access management system
Answers
D.
An OpenID Connect authentication system
D.
An OpenID Connect authentication system
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A privileged access management (PAM) system is a solution that helps protect organizations against cyberthreats by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to critical resources12. A PAM system can meet the requirements of the project by providing features such as:

Check-in/checkout of credentials: A PAM system can store and manage privileged credentials in a secure vault, and allow authorized users to check out credentials when needed and check them back in when done. This reduces the risk of credential theft, misuse, or sharing23. The ability to use but not know the password: A PAM system can enable users to access privileged accounts or resources without revealing the actual password, using methods such as password injection, session proxy, or single sign-on23. This prevents users from copying, changing, or sharing passwords2.

Automated password changes: A PAM system can automatically rotate and update passwords for privileged accounts according to predefined policies, such as frequency, complexity, and uniqueness23. This ensures that passwords are always strong and unpredictable, and reduces the risk of password reuse or compromise2.

Logging of access to credentials: A PAM system can record and audit all activities related to privileged access, such as who accessed what credentials, when, why, and what they did with them23. This provides visibility and accountability for privileged access, and enables detection and investigation of anomalies or incidents2.

A PAM system is different from OAuth 2.0, which is an authorization framework that enables third- party applications to obtain limited access to an HTTP service on behalf of a resource owner4. OAuth 2.0 does not provide the same level of control and security over privileged access as a PAM system does.

A PAM system is also different from a secure enclave, which is a hardware-based security feature that creates an isolated execution environment within a processor to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access or modification5. A secure enclave does not provide the same functionality as a PAM system for managing privileged credentials and access.

A PAM system is also different from an OpenID Connect authentication system, which is an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0 that enables users to verify their identity across multiple websites using a single login6. OpenID Connect does not provide the same scope and granularity as a PAM system for controlling and monitoring privileged access.

The application development team is in the final stages of developing a new healthcare application. The team has requested copies of current PHI records to perform the final testing. Which of the following would be the best way to safeguard this information without impeding the testing process?

A.
Implementing a content filter
A.
Implementing a content filter
Answers
B.
Anonymizing the data
B.
Anonymizing the data
Answers
C.
Deploying DLP tools
C.
Deploying DLP tools
Answers
D.
Installing a FIM on the application server
D.
Installing a FIM on the application server
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Anonymizing the data is the process of removing personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, so that the people whom the data describe remain anonymous12. Anonymizing the data can safeguard the PHI records without impeding the testing process, because it can protect the privacy of the patients while preserving the data integrity and statistical accuracy for the application development team12. Anonymizing the data can be done by using techniques such as data masking, pseudonymization, generalization, data swapping, or data perturbation12. Implementing a content filter is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of content based on predefined rules or policies3. A content filter does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or leakage of PHI records.

Deploying DLP tools is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that monitors and prevents data exfiltration or transfer to unauthorized destinations or users. DLP tools do not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and they may not be sufficient to protect PHI records from internal misuse or negligence.

Installing a FIM on the application server is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that detects and alerts changes to files or directories on a system. FIM does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or modification of PHI records.

The alert indicates an attacker entered thousands of characters into the text box of a web form. The web form was intended for legitimate customers to enter their phone numbers. Which of the attacks has most likely occurred?

A.
Privilege escalation
A.
Privilege escalation
Answers
B.
Buffer overflow
B.
Buffer overflow
Answers
C.
Resource exhaustion
C.
Resource exhaustion
Answers
D.
Cross-site scripting
D.
Cross-site scripting
Answers
Suggested answer: B

A security administrator recently used an internal CA to issue a certificate to a public application. A user tries to reach the application but receives a message stating, “Your connection is not private." Which of the following is the best way to fix this issue?

A.
Ignore the warning and continue to use the application normally.
A.
Ignore the warning and continue to use the application normally.
Answers
B.
Install the certificate on each endpoint that needs to use the application.
B.
Install the certificate on each endpoint that needs to use the application.
Answers
C.
Send the new certificate to the users to install on their browsers.
C.
Send the new certificate to the users to install on their browsers.
Answers
D.
Send a CSR to a known CA and install the signed certificate on the application's server.
D.
Send a CSR to a known CA and install the signed certificate on the application's server.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A certificate issued by an internal CA is not trusted by default by external users or applications. Therefore, when a user tries to reach the application that uses an internal CA

certificate, they will receive a warning message that their connection is not private1. The best way to fix this issue is to use a certificate signed by a well-known public CA that is trusted by most browsers

and operating systems1. To do this, the security administrator needs to send a certificate signing request (CSR) to a public CA and install the signed certificate on the application’s server2. The other

options are not recommended or feasible. Ignoring the warning and continuing to use the application normally is insecure and exposes the user to potential man-in-the-middle

attacks3. Installing the certificate on each endpoint that needs to use the application is impractical

and cumbersome, especially if there are many users or devices involved3. Sending the new

certificate to the users to install on their browsers is also inconvenient and may not work for some

browsers or devices3.

Reference: 1: https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/howto-create-selfsigned-certificate 2:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/mutualauthentication-certificate-management 3:

https://serverfault.com/questions/1106443/should-i-use-a-public-or-a-internal-ca-for-client-certificate-mtls

A network security manager wants to implement periodic events that will test the security team's preparedness for incidents in a controlled and scripted manner, Which of the following concepts describes this scenario?

A.
Red-team exercise
A.
Red-team exercise
Answers
B.
Business continuity plan testing
B.
Business continuity plan testing
Answers
C.
Tabletop exercise
C.
Tabletop exercise
Answers
D.
Functional exercise
D.
Functional exercise
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A tabletop exercise is a type of security exercise that involves a simulated scenario of a security incident and a discussion of how the security team would respond to it1. A tabletop exercise is a lowimpact and cost-effective way to test the security team’s preparedness, identify gaps and areas for

improvement, and enhance communication and coordination among team members2. A tabletop exercise is different from a red-team exercise, which is a simulated attack by an authorized group of

ethical hackers to test the security defenses and response capabilities of an organization3. A business continuity plan testing is a process of verifying that an organization can continue its essential

functions and operations in the event of a disaster or disruption4. A functional exercise is a type of

security exercise that involves a realistic simulation of a security incident and requires the security

team to perform their roles and responsibilities as if it were a real event.

Reference: 1: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2022/volume-1/cybersecurityincident-response-exercise-guidance 2:

https://www.linuxjournal.com/content/security-exercises 3:

https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/red-team-blue-team/ 4:

https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan : https://www.ready.gov/exercises

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