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Question 61

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A company has an RPO set at 4 hours and values data protection and disaster recovery. A disaster occurs on June 12, 2023 at 10:00 AM.

Which restore point gives the company the best RPO?

June 12,2023,9:30 AM
June 12,2023,9:30 AM
June 12,2023,5:00 AM
June 12,2023,5:00 AM
June 12,2023, 1:00 PM
June 12,2023, 1:00 PM
June 12,2023,8:00 AM
June 12,2023,8:00 AM
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Given the company has an RPO set at 4 hours, the restore point that gives the best RPO is the one closest to the time of the disaster without going over the disaster's timestamp. Since the disaster occurred on June 12, 2023, at 10:00 AM, the restore point at June 12, 2023, 9:30 AM would be the most recent one within the RPO threshold. This restore point minimizes data loss and provides the most current data before the disaster.

Reference:

Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide: Understanding RPO and RTO

Veeam Best Practices: RPO and RTO Planning

asked 23/09/2024
Mahdi Far
32 questions

Question 62

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An engineer has used a Linux Hardened Repository as the backup repository. The immutability period is set to 60 days.

The backup settings are:

Retention Policy: 14 days

GFS Weekly full backup: 1 week

GFS Monthly full backup: 6 months

If a full backup is created on 27th May 2023 with a monthly GFS flag, when will this restore point be automatically deleted?

2V June 2023
2V June 2023
28th July 2023
28th July 2023
28th November 2023
28th November 2023
5th August 2023
5th August 2023
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The immutability period set on a Linux Hardened Repository prevents deletion of backup files for the duration of the immutability period. In this case, it is set to 60 days. However, the GFS (Grandfather-Father-Son) retention policy specifies that a monthly full backup is to be kept for 6 months. Since the full backup was created on 27th May 2023 and flagged as a monthly GFS backup, it will be retained for 6 months irrespective of the retention policy or the immutability setting. Hence, the restore point will be automatically deleted after 6 months, which would be on the 28th of November 2023.

Reference:

Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide: GFS Retention Policy

Veeam Help Center: Linux Hardened Repository Immutability

asked 23/09/2024
Miguel Bakker
30 questions

Question 63

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A physical Linux file server needs to be migrated to VMware ESXi. The server has several volumes: /dev/sda (60GB), /dev/sdb (1TB) and /dev/sdc (4TB). What is the quickest option to migrate the server?

Create an empty VM and perform bare metal recovery inside the VM.
Create an empty VM and perform bare metal recovery inside the VM.
Perform Instant VM Recovery.
Perform Instant VM Recovery.
Perform Instant Disk Recovery for each volume.
Perform Instant Disk Recovery for each volume.
Export all disks, create an empty VM and attach the disks.
Export all disks, create an empty VM and attach the disks.
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The quickest option for migrating a physical Linux file server with multiple volumes to VMware ESXi is to perform Instant VM Recovery. This feature allows you to run the server directly from the backup file in a VMware environment, significantly reducing the time and complexity involved in migration.

Reference: Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide, Veeam Instant VM Recovery for Physical Servers

asked 23/09/2024
PRADESH MATHEW
41 questions

Question 64

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A planned failover of three VMs has just completed successfully, starting the VMs at the disaster recovery location. What next actions are available for the failover plan?

Undo, Start, Edit, Delete
Undo, Start, Edit, Delete
Undo, Start, Copy, Delete
Undo, Start, Copy, Delete
Cancel. Start, Edit, Delete
Cancel. Start, Edit, Delete
Cancel, Start, Copy, Delete
Cancel, Start, Copy, Delete
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

After completing a planned failover for VMs to the disaster recovery site, the typical actions available in Veeam Backup & Replication for a failover plan are:

Undo: This allows you to reverse the failover and return the VMs to the original location.

Start: This would be used to initiate the failover plan if it needs to be executed again.

Edit: This option permits modifications to the failover plan.

Delete: This allows the removal of the failover plan if it is no longer needed. There are no options for Copy in the context of a failover plan, and the Cancel option is typically available before and during the failover process, not after completion.

asked 23/09/2024
Martin White
35 questions

Question 65

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Why is it recommended to have at least one backup proxy server in each site when defining a replica job?

The proxies allow replication automatic restart after failure.
The proxies allow replication automatic restart after failure.
The proxies allow for no VM snapshots during transit.
The proxies allow for no VM snapshots during transit.
lt allows deduplication during data transit across the WAN
lt allows deduplication during data transit across the WAN
The proxies allow automatic WAN acceleration.
The proxies allow automatic WAN acceleration.
The proxies enable a stable connection for VM data transfer across sites.
The proxies enable a stable connection for VM data transfer across sites.
It allows for no VM snapshots
It allows for no VM snapshots
Suggested answer: E

Explanation:

Having at least one backup proxy server in each site when defining a replica job is recommended because the backup proxy servers are responsible for data processing and transfer. Having proxies in both sites enables a stable connection for VM data transfer across sites, as they handle the data compression, deduplication, and transfer processes. This setup ensures that data is efficiently moved from one site to another, thereby making replication more resilient and reliable. Proxies do not automatically restart replication after failure (A), remove the need for VM snapshots during transit (B and F), or enable automatic WAN acceleration (D), although they can work in conjunction with WAN accelerators if configured to do so. They also don't directly deduplicate data during transit across the WAN (C), although they do compress and optimize it for transfer.

asked 23/09/2024
William Takashi Chan
34 questions

Question 66

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A physical Windows server protected by a centrally managed Veeam agent is physically damaged. A Hyper-V infrastructure is available, and the physical server is eligible for virtualization.

Which recovery step provides the lowest possible RTO?

Use Instant VM Recovery to Hyper-V.
Use Instant VM Recovery to Hyper-V.
Use Instant Disk Recovery to Hyper-V.
Use Instant Disk Recovery to Hyper-V.
Use Bare Metal Restore to Hyper-VVMs.
Use Bare Metal Restore to Hyper-VVMs.
Use Export Disk Content as Virtual Disk to create a new VM.
Use Export Disk Content as Virtual Disk to create a new VM.
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Instant VM Recovery is a feature in Veeam that allows you to start a virtual machine directly from a backup file without waiting for the full restore. Using Instant VM Recovery to Hyper-V is the best option for achieving the lowest possible Recovery Time Objective (RTO) because it allows the damaged physical server's backup to be run as a VM in the Hyper-V environment almost immediately. The Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows supports Instant Recovery to a Hyper-V VM, which will enable you to restore service quickly while you can plan for a more permanent recovery solution.

asked 23/09/2024
Juliana Correa Zapat
26 questions

Question 67

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To be able to increase backup retention, the company has bought a Data Domain deduplication appliance.

After setting up the jobs to use it, the backup administrator observes an increase of resource consumption on the backup server. The proxy configuration has not been modified.

What is causing the issue?

The backup appliance does not have enough resources to process the data.
The backup appliance does not have enough resources to process the data.
The SSL certificate on the backup appliance needs to be updated.
The SSL certificate on the backup appliance needs to be updated.
The backup server has to fulfill the gateway role.
The backup server has to fulfill the gateway role.
The backup server needs additional resources to use a deduplication appliance.
The backup server needs additional resources to use a deduplication appliance.
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

When integrating a Data Domain deduplication appliance with Veeam Backup & Replication, it is typically used as a backup repository. The backup server may need to take on the gateway role, especially if the Data Domain is integrated over NFS or CIFS. This means that the backup server will be responsible for processing the data flow between the Veeam proxies and the deduplication appliance. If the gateway server (backup server) is not well-resourced, this additional workload can cause an increase in resource consumption on the backup server. The appliance's resources and the SSL certificate are not related to increased resource consumption on the backup server, and simply needing additional resources for deduplication (D) is not specific enough without indicating the gateway role.

asked 23/09/2024
Maurice Nicholson
43 questions

Question 68

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Company security policy states that backups must be copied to a remote location within 8 hours.

What step can a backup administrator take to receive an alert automatically if the backup copy job violates the company's policy?

Set a Data Protection alert in Enterprise Manager
Set a Data Protection alert in Enterprise Manager
Set a backup copy window alert on the repository
Set a backup copy window alert on the repository
Set up post-thaw scripts to send an email
Set up post-thaw scripts to send an email
Enable the appropriate RPO monitor
Enable the appropriate RPO monitor
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

To receive an automatic alert if the backup copy job violates the company's 8-hour policy for copying backups to a remote location, the backup administrator should enable the appropriate Recovery Point Objective (RPO) monitor. This feature tracks the age of the latest backup and alerts when it exceeds the defined RPO.

Reference: Veeam Backup & Replication Documentation, Veeam RPO Monitoring and Reporting Guide

asked 23/09/2024
Brian Wilson
37 questions

Question 69

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A customer has a physical windows server running Microsoft SQL 2020.

Which component should be used to protect the whole server?

Veeam Agent
Veeam Agent
Veeam Plug-in for Enterprise Application
Veeam Plug-in for Enterprise Application
Veeam Backup Proxy
Veeam Backup Proxy
Cache Repository
Cache Repository
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

To protect a physical Windows server running Microsoft SQL 2020, the Veeam Agent should be used. Veeam Agent is designed to provide comprehensive backup and recovery for physical servers, including those running critical applications like Microsoft SQL Server.

Reference: Veeam Agent for Windows User Guide, Veeam Physical Server Backup Guide

asked 23/09/2024
Said Jabri
40 questions

Question 70

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There is a company-wide mandate to migrate operations off corporate datacenters and over to AWS, Azure, and GCE. The Veeam engineer has backups of VMware, Hyper-V, and Nutanix VMs stored in on-premises repositories. The performance of a test restore was not satisfactory.

Which solution should the engineer deploy?

Caching servers on premises and in the cloud
Caching servers on premises and in the cloud
Veeam Wan Accelerators on premises and in the cloud
Veeam Wan Accelerators on premises and in the cloud
Upgraded bandwidth to the Internet
Upgraded bandwidth to the Internet
Helper appliance in the cloud
Helper appliance in the cloud
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

To improve the performance of test restores from on-premises repositories to cloud environments (AWS, Azure, and GCE), deploying Veeam WAN Accelerators on premises and in the cloud is recommended. WAN Accelerators optimize data transfer over the network, reducing the amount of data that needs to be transferred and thereby improving restore performance.

Reference: Veeam Backup & Replication User Guide, Veeam WAN Accelerator Guide

asked 23/09/2024
Ahmed Khalifa
47 questions
Total 109 questions
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