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In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with __________________ will not apply.

A.
ffff
A.
ffff
Answers
B.
1
B.
1
Answers
C.
3
C.
3
Answers
D.
2
D.
2
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with2will not apply. Stateful Mode configuration is a feature that allows administrators to define how packets are processed by different firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound directions. Chain modules are firewall kernel modules that perform various security functions, such as VPN, IPS, QoS, etc. Each chain module is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. The key can be one of the following values: 0 for all packets, 1 for stateful packets, 2 for stateless packets, and 3 for no match packets. For Stateful Mode configuration, only chain modules with key 0 or 1 will apply, as they handle all packets or stateful packets. Chain modules with key 2 will not apply, as they handle stateless packets, which are not relevant for Stateful Mode configuration.

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

A.
SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless
A.
SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless
Answers
B.
SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not
B.
SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not
Answers
C.
IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this
C.
IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this
Answers
D.
IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.
D.
IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The way SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are different is that IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only. SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are two types of VPN technologies that provide secure remote access to network resources over the internet. SSL VPN uses SSL/TLS protocol to establish an encrypted tunnel between the client and the server, and does not require any additional software or hardware on the client side. IPSec VPN uses IPSec protocol to establish an encrypted tunnel between the client and the server, and requires a dedicated virtual adapter on the client side to handle the IPSec traffic. The other options are either incorrect or not relevant to SSL VPN and IPSec VPN.

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

A.
SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections
A.
SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections
Answers
B.
SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets
B.
SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets
Answers
C.
SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances
C.
SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances
Answers
D.
SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets
D.
SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Secure Network Distributor (SND) is a relevant feature of the Security Gateway because it is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances. SND is a technology that improves the performance and scalability of the Security Gateway by using multiple cores to handle concurrent connections. SND consists of two components: SND driver and Firewall instances. SND driver is responsible for receiving packets from network interfaces and distributing them to Firewall instances based on a load balancing algorithm. Firewall instances are responsible for inspecting packets according to security policies and forwarding them to their destinations. The other options are either incorrect or not related to SND.

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

A.
3
A.
3
Answers
B.
2
B.
2
Answers
C.
1
C.
1
Answers
D.
4
D.
4
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The number of cores that can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device with 4 cores is4. Cluster is a feature that allows two or more Security Gateways to provide high availability and load balancing for network traffic. Firewall-kernel is a component of the Security Gateway that performs packet inspection according to security policies. The number of cores that can be used for Firewall-kernel in a Cluster depends on the number of cores available on each device in the Cluster. The Cluster will use the lowest common denominator of cores among all devices in the Cluster for Firewall-kernel. Therefore, if one device has 2 cores and another device has 4 cores, the Cluster will use 2 cores for Firewall-kernel on each device. However, if both devices have 4 cores, the Cluster will use 4 cores for Firewall-kernel on each device.

Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

A.
Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules
A.
Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules
Answers
B.
Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT
B.
Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT
Answers
C.
Automatic Hide NAT
C.
Automatic Hide NAT
Answers
D.
Automatic Static NAT
D.
Automatic Static NAT
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The NAT rules that are prioritized first areManual/Pre-Automatic NAT. NAT stands for Network Address Translation, and it is a feature that allows Security Gateways to modify the source or destination IP addresses or ports of packets that pass through them. NAT rules are the rules that define how NAT is applied to traffic that matches certain criteria. There are three types of NAT rules: Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT, Automatic NAT, and Manual/Post-Automatic NAT. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT rules are the rules that are manually created by administrators and placed before the automatic NAT rules in the rulebase. These rules have the highest priority and are processed first by the Security Gateway. Automatic NAT rules are the rules that are automatically generated by the Security Gateway based on the NAT properties of network objects. These rules have the second highest priority and are processed after the manual/pre-automatic NAT rules. Manual/Post-Automatic NAT rules are the rules that are manually created by administrators and placed after the automatic NAT rules in the rulebase.These rules have the lowest priority and are processed last by the Security Gateway.

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

A.
Lagging
A.
Lagging
Answers
B.
Synchronized
B.
Synchronized
Answers
C.
Never been synchronized
C.
Never been synchronized
Answers
D.
Collision
D.
Collision
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment isSynchronized. Security Management Server High Availability deployment is a feature that allows two or more Security Management Servers to provide redundancy and load balancing for managing security policies and logs. Synchronization Status is a parameter that indicates how up-to-date the databases of the Security Management Servers are with each other. Synchronization Status can have one of the following values: Synchronized, Lagging, Never been synchronized, or Collision. Synchronized means that the databases of all Security Management Servers are identical and have no conflicts. This is the most ideal status as it ensures consistency and reliability of security management. Lagging means that one or more Security Management Servers have not received all the updates from other Security Management Servers, and their databases are outdated. Never been synchronized means that one or more Security Management Servers have never synchronized their databases with other Security Management Servers, and their databases are independent.Collision means that one or more Security Management Servers have received conflicting updates from other Security Management Servers, and their databases have discrepancies.

Joey wants to upgrade from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management. He will use Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method to achieve this.

What is one of the requirements for his success?

A.
Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine
A.
Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine
Answers
B.
Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine
B.
Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine
Answers
C.
Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine
C.
Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine
Answers
D.
Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more
D.
Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

One of the requirements for Joey's success in upgrading from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management using Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method is that the size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine. Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method is a procedure that allows administrators to upgrade their Security Management Server to a newer version by migrating their database from an older version to a new machine with a fresh installation of the newer version. One of the steps in this procedure is to copy the /var/log folder from the source machine to the target machine, which contains important log files and configuration files. To ensure that there is enough disk space on the target machine for this operation, it is required that the size of the /var/log folder on the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log folder on the source machine.

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.
Gateway API
A.
Gateway API
Answers
B.
Management API
B.
Management API
Answers
C.
OPSEC SDK
C.
OPSEC SDK
Answers
D.
Threat Prevention API
D.
Threat Prevention API
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Gateway API is NOT an example of a Check Point API. Check Point API is a general term that refers to various application programming interfaces (APIs) that allow external applications to interact with Check Point products and services using standard methods such as HTTP(S) requests and JSON objects. There are several types of Check Point APIs, such as Management API, Threat Prevention API, OPSEC SDK, etc. Management API is an API that allows external applications to configure, manage, and monitor Check Point management server using web services. Threat Prevention API is an API that allows external applications to send files or URLs to Check Point Threat Prevention products for scanning and analysis using web services. OPSEC SDK is an API that allows external applications to integrate with Check Point OPSEC products using C/C++ libraries and protocols. Gateway API is not a valid or existing type of Check Point API.

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

A.
Cloud, Appliance and Private
A.
Cloud, Appliance and Private
Answers
B.
Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid
B.
Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid
Answers
C.
Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid
C.
Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid
Answers
D.
Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware
D.
Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment are Cloud, Appliance, and Private. SandBlast Threat Emulation is a solution that detects and prevents zero-day attacks by emulating files in a sandbox environment and analyzing their behavior for malicious indicators. SandBlast Threat Emulation can be deployed in three different methods: Cloud, Appliance, and Private. Cloud method is when the files are sent to the Check Point cloud service for emulation and analysis. This method does not require any additional hardware or software on the customer's side, and provides the fastest updates and feeds from ThreatCloud. Appliance method is when the files are sent to a dedicated appliance on the customer's network for emulation and analysis. This method provides more control and privacy for the customer, and supports more file types and sizes. Private method is when the files are sent to a private cloud service on the customer's network for emulation and analysis. This method provides the highest level of control and privacy for the customer, and supports customizing the emulation environment and scenarios.

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

A.
ping, traceroute, netstat, and route
A.
ping, traceroute, netstat, and route
Answers
B.
ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route
B.
ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route
Answers
C.
ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet
C.
ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet
Answers
D.
ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup
D.
ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The default commands that appear when right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event in SmartEvent are ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet. SmartEvent is a unified security event management solution that provides visibility, analysis, and reporting of security events across multiple Check Point products. SmartEvent has a feature that allows administrators to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands that can be executed on the IP address of the active cell. The default commands are ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet. Ping is a command that tests the connectivity and latency between two hosts by sending packets and measuring the response time. Whois is a command that queries a database for information about the owner and registrar of a domain name or an IP address. Nslookup is a command that queries a DNS server for information about a domain name or an IP address, such as its IP address, name server, mail server, etc. Telnet is a command that establishes a remote connection to another host using the Telnet protocol.

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