ExamGecko
Home Home / CompTIA / CS0-003

CompTIA CS0-003 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 27

Question list
Search
Search

List of questions

Search

Related questions











Exploit code for a recently disclosed critical software vulnerability was publicly available (or download for several days before being removed. Which of the following CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics was most impacted by this exposure?

A.
Remediation level
A.
Remediation level
Answers
B.
Exploit code maturity
B.
Exploit code maturity
Answers
C.
Report confidence
C.
Report confidence
Answers
D.
Availability
D.
Availability
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Exploit code maturity in the CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics refers to the reliability and availability of exploit code for a vulnerability. Public availability of exploit code increases the exploit code maturity score.

The availability of exploit code affects the 'Exploit Code Maturity' metric in CVSS v.3.1. This metric evaluates the level of maturity of the exploit that targets the vulnerability. When exploit code is readily available, it suggests a higher level of maturity, indicating that the exploit is more reliable and easier to use.

When undertaking a cloud migration of multiple SaaS application, an organizations system administrator struggled ... identity and access management to cloud-based assets. Which of the following service models would have reduced the complexity of this project?

A.
CASB
A.
CASB
Answers
B.
SASE
B.
SASE
Answers
C.
ZTNA
C.
ZTNA
Answers
D.
SWG
D.
SWG
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) would have reduced the complexity of identity and access management in cloud-based assets. CASBs provide visibility into cloud application usage, data protection, and governance for cloud-based services.

A Chief Information Security Officer wants to implement security by design, starting ...... vulnerabilities, including SQL injection, FRI, XSS, etc. Which of the following would most likely meet the requirement?

A.
Reverse engineering
A.
Reverse engineering
Answers
B.
Known environment testing
B.
Known environment testing
Answers
C.
Dynamic application security testing
C.
Dynamic application security testing
Answers
D.
Code debugging
D.
Code debugging
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is used to detect vulnerabilities in running applications, including common issues like SQL injection, FRI, XSS, etc. It aligns with the goal of implementing security by design.

Which of the following stakeholders are most likely to receive a vulnerability scan report? (Select two).

A.
Executive management
A.
Executive management
Answers
B.
Law enforcement
B.
Law enforcement
Answers
C.
Marketing
C.
Marketing
Answers
D.
Legal
D.
Legal
Answers
E.
Product owner
E.
Product owner
Answers
F.
Systems admininstration
F.
Systems admininstration
Answers
Suggested answer: A, F

Explanation:

Executive management and systems administration are the most likely stakeholders to receive a vulnerability scan report because they are responsible for overseeing the security posture and remediation efforts of the organization. Law enforcement, marketing, legal, and product owner are less likely to be involved in the vulnerability management process or need access to the scan results.

Reference: Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA, How To Write a Vulnerability Assessment Report | EC-Council, Driving Stakeholder Alignment in Vulnerability Management - LogicGate

A security analyst reviews the following extract of a vulnerability scan that was performed against the web server:

Which of the following recommendations should the security analyst provide to harden the web server?

A.
Remove the version information on http-server-header.
A.
Remove the version information on http-server-header.
Answers
B.
Disable tcp_wrappers.
B.
Disable tcp_wrappers.
Answers
C.
Delete the /wp-login.php folder.
C.
Delete the /wp-login.php folder.
Answers
D.
Close port 22.
D.
Close port 22.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The vulnerability scan shows that the version information is visible in the http-server-header, which can be exploited by attackers to identify vulnerabilities specific to that version. Removing or obfuscating this information can enhance security.

A security administrator needs to import Pll data records from the production environment to the test environment for testing purposes. Which of the following would best protect data confidentiality?

A.
Data masking
A.
Data masking
Answers
B.
Hashing
B.
Hashing
Answers
C.
Watermarking
C.
Watermarking
Answers
D.
Encoding
D.
Encoding
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Data masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data, while preserving the original format and structure of the data. This way, the data can be used for testing purposes without revealing the actual Pll information. Data masking is one of the best practices for data analysis of confidential data1.

Reference: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 343; Best Practices for Data Analysis of Confidential Data

A web application team notifies a SOC analyst that there are thousands of HTTP/404 events on the public-facing web server. Which of the following is the next step for the analyst to take?

A.
Instruct the firewall engineer that a rule needs to be added to block this external server.
A.
Instruct the firewall engineer that a rule needs to be added to block this external server.
Answers
B.
Escalate the event to an incident and notify the SOC manager of the activity.
B.
Escalate the event to an incident and notify the SOC manager of the activity.
Answers
C.
Notify the incident response team that a DDoS attack is occurring.
C.
Notify the incident response team that a DDoS attack is occurring.
Answers
D.
Identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity.
D.
Identify the IP/hostname for the requests and look at the related activity.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A HTTP/404 error code means that the requested page or resource was not found on the web server. This could be caused by various reasons, such as incorrect URLs, moved or deleted pages, missing assets, or server misconfigurations123. The analyst should first identify the source of the requests and examine the related activity to determine if they are legitimate or malicious, and what actions need to be taken to resolve the issue. The other options are either premature or irrelevant without further investigation.

Reference: 1: 404 Page Not Found Error: What It Is and How to Fix It 2: 404 Error Code: What Causes Them and How To Fix It 3: About 404 errors and how to Troubleshoot it?

A security analyst would like to integrate two different SaaS-based security tools so that one tool can notify the other in the event a threat is detected. Which of the following should the analyst utilize to best accomplish this goal?

A.
SMB share
A.
SMB share
Answers
B.
API endpoint
B.
API endpoint
Answers
C.
SMTP notification
C.
SMTP notification
Answers
D.
SNMP trap
D.
SNMP trap
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

An API endpoint is a point of entry for a communication between two different SaaS-based security tools. It allows one tool to send requests and receive responses from the other tool using a common interface. An API endpoint can be used to notify the other tool in the event a threat is detected and trigger an appropriate action. SMB share, SMTP notification, and SNMP trap are not suitable for SaaS integration security, as they are either network protocols or email services that do not provide a direct and secure communication between two different SaaS tools.

Reference: Top 10 Best SaaS Security Tools - 2023, What is SaaS Security? A Guide to Everything SaaS Security, 6 Key Considerations for SaaS Integration Security | Prismatic, Introducing Security for Interconnected SaaS - Palo Alto Networks

A network analyst notices a long spike in traffic on port 1433 between two IP addresses on opposite sides of a WAN connection. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.
A local red team member is enumerating the local RFC1918 segment to enumerate hosts.
A.
A local red team member is enumerating the local RFC1918 segment to enumerate hosts.
Answers
B.
A threat actor has a foothold on the network and is sending out control beacons.
B.
A threat actor has a foothold on the network and is sending out control beacons.
Answers
C.
An administrator executed a new database replication process without notifying the SOC.
C.
An administrator executed a new database replication process without notifying the SOC.
Answers
D.
An insider threat actor is running Responder on the local segment, creating traffic replication.
D.
An insider threat actor is running Responder on the local segment, creating traffic replication.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Port 1433 is commonly used by Microsoft SQL Server, which is a database management system. A spike in traffic on this port between two IP addresses on opposite sides of a WAN connection could indicate a database replication process, which is a way of copying and distributing data from one database server to another. This could be a legitimate activity performed by an administrator, but it should be communicated to the security operations center (SOC) to avoid confusion and false alarms.

A security analyst needs to secure digital evidence related to an incident. The security analyst must ensure that the accuracy of the data cannot be repudiated. Which of the following should be implemented?

A.
Offline storage
A.
Offline storage
Answers
B.
Evidence collection
B.
Evidence collection
Answers
C.
Integrity validation
C.
Integrity validation
Answers
D.
Legal hold
D.
Legal hold
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Integrity validation is the process of ensuring that the digital evidence has not been altered or tampered with during collection, acquisition, preservation, or analysis. It usually involves generating and verifying cryptographic hashes of the evidence, such as MD5 or SHA-1. Integrity validation is essential for maintaining the accuracy and admissibility of the digital evidence in court.

Total 368 questions
Go to page: of 37