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A systems analyst is limiting user access to system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. Which of the following describes where the analyst can find these configuration items?

A.
config. ini
A.
config. ini
Answers
B.
ntds.dit
B.
ntds.dit
Answers
C.
Master boot record
C.
Master boot record
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D.
Registry
D.
Registry
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The registry is a database that stores system configuration keys and values in a Windowsenvironment. The registry contains information about the hardware, software, users, andpreferences of the system. The registry can be accessed and modified using the Registry Editor tool(regedit.exe) or the command-line tool (reg.exe). The registry is organized into five main sections,called hives, which are further divided into subkeys and values.The other options are not the best descriptions of where the analyst can find system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. config.ini (A) is a file that stores configuration settingsfor some applications, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values.ntds.dit (B) is a file that stores the Active Directory data for a domain controller, but it is not adatabase that stores system configuration keys and values. Master boot record © is a section of thehard disk that contains information about the partitions and the boot loader, but it is not a databasethat stores system configuration keys and values.

A security analyst needs to ensure that systems across the organization are protected based on the sensitivity of the content each system hosts. The analyst is working with the respective system owners to help determine the best methodology that seeks to promote confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data being hosted. Which of the following should the security analyst perform first to categorize and prioritize the respective systems?

A.
Interview the users who access these systems,
A.
Interview the users who access these systems,
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B.
Scan the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist.
B.
Scan the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist.
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C.
Configure alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits.
C.
Configure alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits.
Answers
D.
Determine the asset value of each system.
D.
Determine the asset value of each system.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Determining the asset value of each system is the best action to perform first, as it helps to categorize and prioritize the systems based on the sensitivity of the data they host. The asset value is a measure of how important a system is to the organization, in terms of its financial, operational, or reputational impact. The asset value can help the security analyst to assign a risk level and a protection level to each system, and to allocate resources accordingly. The other actions are not as effective as determining the asset value, as they do not directly address the goal of promoting confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data. Interviewing the users who access these systems may provide some insight into how the systems are used and what data they contain, but it may not reflect the actual value or sensitivity of the data from an organizational perspective. Scanning the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist may help to identify and remediate some security issues, but it does not help to categorize or prioritize the systems based on their data sensitivity. Configuring alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits may help to detect and respond to some emerging threats, but it does not help to protect the systems based on their data sensitivity.

A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics. Which of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?

A.
CVSS 3.0/AVP/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S U/C:H/I:H/A:H
A.
CVSS 3.0/AVP/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Answers
B.
CVSS 3.0/AV:A/AC .L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
B.
CVSS 3.0/AV:A/AC .L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Answers
C.
CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S;U/C:H/I:H/A:H
C.
CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S;U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Answers
D.
CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
D.
CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H is the attack vector that the analyst should remediate first, as it has the highest CVSSv3 score of 8.1. CVSSv3 (Common Vulnerability Scoring System version 3) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities, based on various metrics that reflect the characteristics and impact of the vulnerability. The CVSSv3 score is calculated from three groups of metrics: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics are mandatory and reflect the intrinsic qualities of the vulnerability, such as how it can be exploited, what privileges are required, and what impact it has on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The Temporal metrics are optional and reflect the current state of the vulnerability, such as whether there is a known exploit, a patch, or a workaround. The Environmental metrics are also optional and reflect the context of the vulnerability in a specific environment, such as how it affects the asset value, security requirements, or mitigating controls. The Base metrics produce a score ranging from 0 to 10, which can then be modified by scoring the Temporal and Environmental metrics. A CVSS score is also represented as a vector string, a compressed textual representation of the values used to derive the score.

The attack vector in question has the following Base metrics:

Attack Vector (AV): Network (N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection.

Attack Complexity (AC): Low (L). This means that the attack does not require any special conditions or changes to the configuration of the target system.

Privileges Required (PR): Low (L). This means that the attacker needs some privileges on the target system to exploit the vulnerability, such as user-level access.

User Interaction (UI): None (N). This means that the attack does not require any user action or involvement to succeed.

Scope (S): Unchanged (U). This means that the impact of the vulnerability is confined to the same security authority as the vulnerable component, such as an application or an operating system.

Confidentiality Impact : High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of confidentiality, such as unauthorized disclosure of all data on the system.

Integrity Impact (I): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of integrity, such as unauthorized modification or deletion of all data on the system.

Availability Impact (A): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of availability, such as denial of service or system crash.

Using these metrics, we can calculate the Base score using this formula:

Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(Impact + Exploitability), 10])

Where:

Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - Confidentiality) x (1 - Integrity) x (1 - Availability))]

Exploitability = 8.22 x Attack Vector x Attack Complexity x Privileges Required x User Interaction

Using this formula, we get:

Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56))] = 5.9

Exploitability = 8.22 x 0.85 x 0.77 x 0.62 x 0.85 = 2.8

Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(5.9 + 2.8), 10]) = Roundup(8.7) = 8.8

Therefore, this attack vector has a Base score of 8.8, which is higher than any other option.

The other attack vectors have lower Base scores, as they have different values for some of the Base metrics:

CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.2, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Physical), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having physical access to the target system.

CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 7.4, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Adjacent Network), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by being on the same physical or logical network as the target system.

CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.8, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Local), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having local access to the target system, such as through a terminal or a command shell.

After identifying a threat, a company has decided to implement a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities. Which of the following risk management principles is the company exercising?

A.
Transfer
A.
Transfer
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B.
Accept
B.
Accept
Answers
C.
Mitigate
C.
Mitigate
Answers
D.
Avoid
D.
Avoid
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Mitigate is the best term to describe the risk management principle that the company is exercising, as it means to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. By implementing a patch management program to remediate vulnerabilities, the company is mitigating the threat of cyberattacks that could exploit those vulnerabilities and compromise the security or functionality of the systems. The other terms are not as accurate as mitigate, as they describe different risk management principles. Transfer means to shift the responsibility or burden of a risk to another party, such as an insurer or a contractor. Accept means to acknowledge the existence of a risk and decide not to take any action to reduce it, usually because the risk is low or the cost of mitigation is too high. Avoid means to eliminate the possibility of a risk by changing the plans or activities that could cause it, such as cancelling a project or discontinuing a service.

A security analyst discovers an ongoing ransomware attack while investigating a phishing email. The analyst downloads a copy of the file from the email and isolates the affected workstation from the network. Which of the following activities should the analyst perform next?

A.
Wipe the computer and reinstall software
A.
Wipe the computer and reinstall software
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B.
Shut down the email server and quarantine it from the network.
B.
Shut down the email server and quarantine it from the network.
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C.
Acquire a bit-level image of the affected workstation.
C.
Acquire a bit-level image of the affected workstation.
Answers
D.
Search for other mail users who have received the same file.
D.
Search for other mail users who have received the same file.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Searching for other mail users who have received the same file is the best activity to perform next, as it helps to identify and contain the scope of the ransomware attack and prevent further damage. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts files on a system and demands payment for their decryption. Ransomware can spread through phishing emails that contain malicious attachments or links that download the ransomware. By searching for other mail users who have received the same file, the analyst can alert them not to open it, delete it from their inboxes, and scan their systems for any signs of infection. The other activities are not as urgent or effective as searching for other mail users who have received the same file, as they do not address the immediate threat of ransomware spreading or affecting more systems. Wiping the computer and reinstalling software may restore the functionality of the affected workstation, but it will also erase any evidence of the ransomware attack and make recovery of encrypted files impossible. Shutting down the email server and quarantining it from the network may stop the delivery of more phishing emails, but it will also disrupt normal communication and operations for the organization. Acquiring a bit-level image of the affected workstation may preserve the evidence of the ransomware attack, but it will not help to stop or remove the ransomware or decrypt the files.

An organization recently changed its BC and DR plans. Which of the following would best allow for the incident response team to test the changes without any impact to the business?

A.
Perform a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios.
A.
Perform a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios.
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B.
Simulate an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center.
B.
Simulate an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center.
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C.
Migrate active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location.
C.
Migrate active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location.
Answers
D.
Compare the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents.
D.
Compare the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Performing a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios is the best way to test the changes to the BC and DR plans without any impact to the business, as it is a low-cost and low-risk method of exercising the plans and identifying any gaps or issues. A tabletop drill is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves gathering key personnel from different departments and roles and discussing how they would respond to a hypothetical incident scenario. A tabletop drill does not involve any actual simulation or disruption of the systems or processes, but rather relies on verbal communication and documentation review. A tabletop drill can help to ensure that everyone is familiar with the BC/DR plans, that the plans reflect the current state of the organization, and that the plans are consistent and coordinated across different functions. The other options are not as suitable as performing a tabletop drill, as they involve more cost, risk, or impact to the business. Simulating an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves creating an actual disruption or outage of a critical system or process, and observing how the organization responds and recovers. This type of exercise can provide a realistic assessment of the BC/DR capabilities, but it can also cause significant impact to the business operations, customers, and reputation. Migrating active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves switching over from one system or site to another, and verifying that the backup system or site can support the normal operations. This type of exercise can help to validate the functionality and performance of the backup system or site, but it can also incur high costs, complexity, and potential errors or failures. Comparing the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents is a type of BC/DR activity that involves reviewing past experiences and outcomes, and identifying best practices or improvement opportunities. This activity can help to update and refine the BC/DR plans, but it does not test or validate them in a simulated or actual scenario

An end-of-life date was announced for a widely used OS. A business-critical function is performed by some machinery that is controlled by a PC, which is utilizing the OS that is approaching the end-of- life date. Which of the following best describes a security analyst's concern?

A.
Any discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated.
A.
Any discovered vulnerabilities will not be remediated.
Answers
B.
An outage of machinery would cost the organization money.
B.
An outage of machinery would cost the organization money.
Answers
C.
Support will not be available for the critical machinery
C.
Support will not be available for the critical machinery
Answers
D.
There are no compensating controls in place for the OS.
D.
There are no compensating controls in place for the OS.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A security analyst's concern is that any discovered vulnerabilities in the OS that is approaching the end-of-life date will not be remediated by the vendor, leaving the system exposed to potential attacks. The other options are not directly related to the security analyst's role or responsibility. Verified

Reference:CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives, page 9, section 2.21

A cloud team received an alert that unauthorized resources were being auto-provisioned. After investigating, the team suspects that crypto mining is occurring. Which of the following indicators would most likely lead the team to this conclusion?

A.
High GPIJ utilization
A.
High GPIJ utilization
Answers
B.
Bandwidth consumption
B.
Bandwidth consumption
Answers
C.
Unauthorized changes
C.
Unauthorized changes
Answers
D.
Unusual traffic spikes
D.
Unusual traffic spikes
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

High GPU utilization is the most likely indicator that cryptomining is occurring, as it reflects the intensive computational work that is required to solve the complex mathematical problems involved in mining cryptocurrencies. Cryptomining is the process of generating new units of a cryptocurrency by using computing power to verify transactions and create new blocks on the blockchain. Cryptomining can be done legitimately by individuals or groups who participate in a mining pool and share the rewards, or illegitimately by threat actors who use malware or scripts to hijack the computing resources of unsuspecting victims and use them for their own benefit. This practice is called cryptojacking, and it can cause performance degradation, increased power consumption, and security risks for the affected systems. Cryptomining typically relies on the GPU (graphics processing unit) rather than the CPU (central processing unit), as the GPU is better suited for parallel processing and can handle more calculations per second. Therefore, a high GPU utilization rate can be a sign that cryptomining is taking place on a system, especially if there is no other explanation for the increased workload. The other options are not as indicative of cryptomining as high GPU utilization, as they can have other causes or explanations. Bandwidth consumption can be affected by many factors, such as network traffic, streaming services, downloads, or updates. It is not directly related to cryptomining, which does not require a lot of bandwidth to communicate with the mining pool or the blockchain network. Unauthorized changes can be a result of many types of malware or cyberattacks, such as ransomware, spyware, or trojans. They are not specific to cryptomining, which does not necessarily alter any files or settings on the system, but rather uses its processing power. Unusual traffic spikes can also be caused by various factors, such as legitimate surges in demand, distributed denial-of-service attacks, or botnets. They are not indicative of cryptomining, which does not generate a lot of traffic or requests to or from the system.

A security analyst receives an alert for suspicious activity on a company laptop An excerpt of the log is shown below:

Which of the following has most likely occurred?

A.
An Office document with a malicious macro was opened.
A.
An Office document with a malicious macro was opened.
Answers
B.
A credential-stealing website was visited.
B.
A credential-stealing website was visited.
Answers
C.
A phishing link in an email was clicked
C.
A phishing link in an email was clicked
Answers
D.
A web browser vulnerability was exploited.
D.
A web browser vulnerability was exploited.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

An Office document with a malicious macro was opened is the most likely explanation for the suspicious activity on the company laptop, as it reflects the common technique of using macros to execute PowerShell commands that download and run malware. A macro is a piece of code that can automate tasks or perform actions in an Office document, such as a Word file or an Excel spreadsheet. Macros can be useful and legitimate, but they can also be abused by threat actors to deliver malware or perform malicious actions on the system. A malicious macro can be embedded in an Office document that is sent as an attachment in a phishing email or hosted on a compromised website. When the user opens the document, they may be prompted to enable macros or content, which will trigger the execution of the malicious code. The malicious macro can then use PowerShell, which is a scripting language and command-line shell that is built into Windows, to perform various tasks, such as downloading and running malware from a remote URL, bypassing security controls, or establishing persistence on the system. The log excerpt shows that PowerShell was used to download a string from a URL using the WebClient.DownloadString method, which is a common way to fetch and execute malicious code from the internet. The log also shows that PowerShell was used to invoke an expression (iex) that contains obfuscated code, which is another common way to evade detection and analysis. The other options are not as likely as an Office document with a malicious macro was opened, as they do not match the evidence in the log excerpt. A credential-stealing website was visited is possible, but it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL. A phishing link in an email was clicked is also possible, but it does not explain what happened after the link was clicked or how PowerShell was involved. A web browser vulnerability was exploited is unlikely, as it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL.

During an incident, a security analyst discovers a large amount of Pll has been emailed externally from an employee to a public email address. The analyst finds that the external email is the employee's personal email. Which of the following should the analyst recommend be done first?

A.
Place a legal hold on the employee's mailbox.
A.
Place a legal hold on the employee's mailbox.
Answers
B.
Enable filtering on the web proxy.
B.
Enable filtering on the web proxy.
Answers
C.
Disable the public email access with CASB.
C.
Disable the public email access with CASB.
Answers
D.
Configure a deny rule on the firewall.
D.
Configure a deny rule on the firewall.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Placing a legal hold on the employee's mailbox is the best action to perform first, as it preserves all mailbox content, including deleted items and original versions of modified items, for potential legal or forensic purposes. A legal hold is a feature that allows an administrator to retain mailbox data for a user indefinitely or for a specified period, regardless of the user's actions or retention policies. A legal hold can be applied to a mailbox using Litigation Hold or In-Place Hold in Exchange Server or Exchange Online. A legal hold can help to ensure that evidence of data exfiltration or other malicious activities is not lost or tampered with, and that the organization can comply with any legal or regulatory obligations. The other actions are not as urgent or effective as placing a legal hold on the employee's mailbox, as they do not address the immediate threat of data loss or compromise. Enabling filtering on the web proxy may help to prevent some types of data exfiltration or malicious traffic, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Disabling the public email access with CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) may help to block or monitor the use of public email services by employees, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Configuring a deny rule on the firewall may help to block or monitor the network traffic from the employee's laptop, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally.

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