ExamGecko
Home Home / CompTIA / SY0-601

CompTIA SY0-601 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 49

Question list
Search
Search

List of questions

Search

Related questions











An audit report indicates multiple suspicious attempts to access company resources were made. These attempts were not detected by the company. Which of the following would be the best solution to implement on the company's network?

A.
Intrusion prevention system
A.
Intrusion prevention system
Answers
B.
Proxy server
B.
Proxy server
Answers
C.
Jump server
C.
Jump server
Answers
D.
Security zones
D.
Security zones
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is the best solution to implement on the company's network to detect and prevent suspicious attempts to access company resources. An IPS is a network security technology that continuously monitors network traffic for malicious or anomalous activity and takes automated actions to block or mitigate it. An IPS can also alert the system administrators of any potential threats and provide detailed logs and reports of the incidents. An IPS can help the company to improve its security posture and prevent data breaches, unauthorized access, or denial-of-service attacks.

Reference:

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-an-intrusion-prevention-system-ips

https://www.forcepoint.com/cyber-edu/intrusion-prevention-system-ips

A security architect is required to deploy to conference rooms some workstations that will allow sensitive data to be displayed on large screens. Due to the nature of the data, it cannot be stored in the conference rooms. The file share is located in a local data center. Which of the following should the security architect recommend to best meet the requirement?

A.
Fog computing and KVMs
A.
Fog computing and KVMs
Answers
B.
VDI and thin clients
B.
VDI and thin clients
Answers
C.
Private cloud and DLP
C.
Private cloud and DLP
Answers
D.
Full drive encryption and thick clients
D.
Full drive encryption and thick clients
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

VDI and thin clients are the best solution to deploy to conference rooms for displaying sensitive data on large screens. VDI stands for virtual desktop infrastructure, which is a technology that hosts the desktop operating systems and applications on a central server or cloud and allows users to access them remotely. Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a network connection to the VDI system. By using VDI and thin clients, the security architect can ensure that the sensitive data is not stored in the conference rooms, but rather in a secure data center or cloud. The thin clients can also be easily managed and updated centrally, reducing the maintenance costs and risks.

Reference:

https://www.acecloudhosting.com/blog/what-is-vdi-thin-client/

https://www.parallels.com/blogs/ras/vdi-thin-client/

While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a 'deny any' policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable. Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?

A.
Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
A.
Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
Answers
B.
Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
B.
Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
Answers
C.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any' policy prior to enabling the new policy
C.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any' policy prior to enabling the new policy
Answers
D.
Including an 'allow any' policy above the 'deny any' policy
D.
Including an 'allow any' policy above the 'deny any' policy
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network would prevent the issue of making several company servers unreachable. A non-production environment is a replica of the production network that is used for testing, development, or training purposes. By testing the policy in a non-production environment, the technician can verify the functionality and impact of the policy without affecting the real network or users. This can help to identify and resolve any errors or conflicts before applying the policy to the production network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment can also help to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.

A security engineer is building a file transfer solution to send files to a business partner. The users would like to drop off the files in a specific directory and have the server send the file to the business partner. The connection to the business partner is over the internet and needs to be secure. Which of the following can be used?

A.
SMIME
A.
SMIME
Answers
B.
LDAPS
B.
LDAPS
Answers
C.
SSH
C.
SSH
Answers
D.
SRTP
D.
SRTP
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that can be used to securely transfer files over the internet. SSH uses encryption and authentication to protect the data in transit and ensure the identity of the sender and receiver. SSH can also support compression, tunneling, and port forwarding. SSH can be used to send files to a business partner by using a command-line tool such as scp or sftp, or by using a graphical user interface (GUI) tool such as FileZilla or WinSCP. SSH can also be used to remotely access and manage servers or devices over the internet.

Reference:

https://www.globalscape.com/solutions/secure-file-transfer

https://www.jscape.com/blog/how-to-securely-transfer-large-files-over-the-internet

A company is auditing the manner in which its European customers' personal information is handled. Which of the following should the company consult?

A.
GDPR
A.
GDPR
Answers
B.
ISO
B.
ISO
Answers
C.
NIST
C.
NIST
Answers
D.
PCI DSS
D.
PCI DSS
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal information of individuals within the European Union (EU). GDPR also applies to organizations outside the EU that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU data subjects. GDPR aims to protect the privacy and rights of EU citizens and residents regarding their personal data. GDPR defines personal data as any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person, such as name, identification number, location data, online identifiers, or any factors specific to the physical, physiological, genetic, mental, economic, cultural, or social identity of that person. A company that is auditing the manner in which its European customers' personal information is handled should consult GDPR to ensure compliance with its rules and obligations.

Reference:

https://www.gdpreu.org/the-regulation/key-concepts/personal-data/

https://ico.org.uk/for-organisations-2/guide-to-data-protection/guide-to-the-general-data-protection-regulation-gdpr/key-definitions/what-is-personal-data/

An organization is building a new headquarters and has placed fake cameras around the building in an attempt to discourage potential intruders. Which of the following kinds of controls describes this security method?

A.
Detective
A.
Detective
Answers
B.
Deterrent
B.
Deterrent
Answers
C.
Directive
C.
Directive
Answers
D.
Corrective
D.
Corrective
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A deterrent control is a type of security control that is designed to discourage potential intruders from attempting to access or harm a system or network. A deterrent control relies on the perception or fear of negative consequences rather than the actual enforcement of those consequences. A deterrent control can also be used to influence the behavior of authorized users by reminding them of their obligations and responsibilities. An example of a deterrent control is placing fake cameras around the building, as it can create the illusion of surveillance and deter potential intruders from trying to break in. Other examples of deterrent controls are warning signs, security guards, or audit trails.

Reference:

https://www.ibm.com/topics/security-controls

https://www.f5.com/labs/learning-center/what-are-security-controls

Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?

A.
Compensating control
A.
Compensating control
Answers
B.
Network segmentation
B.
Network segmentation
Answers
C.
Transfer of risk
C.
Transfer of risk
Answers
D.
SNMP traps
D.
SNMP traps
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A compensating control is a type of security control that is implemented in lieu of a recommended security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time. A compensating control must provide equivalent or comparable protection for the system or network and meet the intent and rigor of the original security requirement. An example of a compensating control is using a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system to allow connections from only specific internal IP addresses, as it can provide a similar level of defense as a network firewall that may not be compatible with the system.

Reference:

https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/compensating-control

https://reciprocity.com/resources/whats-the-difference-between-compensating-controls-and-mitigating-controls/

During the onboarding process, an employee needs to create a password for an intranet account. The password must include ten characters, numbers, and letters, and two special characters. Once the password is created, the 'company will grant the employee access to other company-owned websites based on the intranet profile. Which of the following access management concepts is the company most likely using to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user's intranet account? (Select two).

A.
Federation
A.
Federation
Answers
B.
Identity proofing
B.
Identity proofing
Answers
C.
Password complexity
C.
Password complexity
Answers
D.
Default password changes
D.
Default password changes
Answers
E.
Password manager
E.
Password manager
Answers
F.
Open authentication
F.
Open authentication
Answers
Suggested answer: A, F

Explanation:

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user's intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again.

Reference:

https://www.keycloak.org/

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

An organization experiences a cybersecurity incident involving a command-and-control server. Which of the following logs should be analyzed to identify the impacted host? (Select two).

A.
Application
A.
Application
Answers
B.
Authentication
B.
Authentication
Answers
C.
Error
C.
Error
Answers
D.
Network
D.
Network
Answers
E.
Firewall
E.
Firewall
Answers
F.
System
F.
System
Answers
Suggested answer: D, E

Explanation:

Network and firewall logs should be analyzed to identify the impacted host in a cybersecurity incident involving a command-and-control server. A command-and-control server is a central server that communicates with and controls malware-infected devices or bots. A command-and-control server can send commands to the bots, such as downloading additional malware, stealing data, or launching attacks. Network logs can help to identify any suspicious or anomalous network traffic, such as connections to unknown or malicious domains, high-volume data transfers, or unusual protocols or ports. Firewall logs can help to identify any blocked or allowed traffic based on the firewall rules, such as connections to or from the command-and-control server, or any attempts to bypass the firewall.

Reference:

https://cybersecurity.att.com/blogs/security-essentials/command-and-control-server-detection-methods-best-practices

https://www.howtogeek.com/726136/what-is-a-command-and-control-server-for-malware/

Which of the following threat actors is most likely to be motivated by ideology?

A.
Business competitor
A.
Business competitor
Answers
B.
Hacktivist
B.
Hacktivist
Answers
C.
Criminal syndicate
C.
Criminal syndicate
Answers
D.
Script kiddie
D.
Script kiddie
Answers
E.
Disgruntled employee
E.
Disgruntled employee
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A hacktivist is a threat actor who is most likely to be motivated by ideology. A hacktivist is a person or group who uses hacking skills and techniques to promote a political or social cause. Hacktivists may target government, corporate, or religious entities that they disagree with or oppose. Hacktivists may use various methods to achieve their goals, such as defacing websites, leaking sensitive data, launching denial-of-service attacks, or spreading propaganda. Hacktivists are not motivated by financial gain or personal benefit, but rather by their beliefs and values.

Reference:

https://www.uscybersecurity.net/hacktivist/

https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/what-is-hacktivism

Total 603 questions
Go to page: of 61