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A company must ensure sensitive data at rest is rendered unreadable. Which of the following will the company most likely use?

A.
Hashing
A.
Hashing
Answers
B.
Tokenization
B.
Tokenization
Answers
C.
Encryption
C.
Encryption
Answers
D.
Segmentation
D.
Segmentation
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Encryption is a method of transforming data in a way that makes it unreadable without a secret key necessary to decrypt the data back into plaintext. Encryption is one of the most common and effective ways to protect data at rest, as it prevents unauthorized access, modification, or theft of the data. Encryption can be applied to different types of data at rest, such as block storage, object storage, databases, archives, and so on. Hashing, tokenization, and segmentation are not methods of rendering data at rest unreadable, but rather of protecting data in other ways. Hashing is a one-way function that generates a fixed-length output, called a hash or digest, from an input, such that the input cannot be recovered from the output. Hashing is used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data, but not to encrypt it. Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes, called tokens, that have no meaning or value on their own. Tokenization is used to reduce the exposure and compliance scope of sensitive data, but not to encrypt it. Segmentation is a technique that divides a network or a system into smaller, isolated units, called segments, that have different levels of access and security.Segmentation is used to limit the attack surface and contain the impact of a breach, but not to encrypt data at rest.Reference:CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, pages 77-781; Protecting data at rest - Security Pillar3

A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. Which of the following should the administrator do first?

A.
Block access to cloud storage websites.
A.
Block access to cloud storage websites.
Answers
B.
Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments.
B.
Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments.
Answers
C.
Apply classifications to the data.
C.
Apply classifications to the data.
Answers
D.
Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
D.
Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, the security administrator can define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data.Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 327.

Which of the following describes a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system?

A.
SIEM
A.
SIEM
Answers
B.
DLP
B.
DLP
Answers
C.
IDS
C.
IDS
Answers
D.
SNMP
D.
SNMP
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system. SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements. SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and reduce operational costs.Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 397.

Which of the following are cases in which an engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device? (Select two).

A.
The device has been moved from a production environment to a test environment.
A.
The device has been moved from a production environment to a test environment.
Answers
B.
The device is configured to use cleartext passwords.
B.
The device is configured to use cleartext passwords.
Answers
C.
The device is moved to an isolated segment on the enterprise network.
C.
The device is moved to an isolated segment on the enterprise network.
Answers
D.
The device is moved to a different location in the enterprise.
D.
The device is moved to a different location in the enterprise.
Answers
E.
The device's encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
E.
The device's encryption level cannot meet organizational standards.
Most voted
Answers (2)
Most voted
F.
The device is unable to receive authorized updates.
F.
The device is unable to receive authorized updates.
Answers
Suggested answer: E

Explanation:

An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.

Reference

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671

CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512

An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period. Which of the following data policies is the administrator carrying out?

A.
Compromise
A.
Compromise
Answers
B.
Retention
B.
Retention
Answers
C.
Analysis
C.
Analysis
Answers
D.
Transfer
D.
Transfer
Answers
E.
Inventory
E.
Inventory
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A data retention policy is a set of rules that defines how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted or archived. An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period by following the data retention policy of the organization. This policy helps the organization to comply with legal and regulatory requirements, optimize storage space, and protect data privacy and security.

Reference

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.4, page 1211

CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3, Question 15, page 832

A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements:

* Provide a secure zone.

* Enforce a company-wide access control policy.

* Reduce the scope of threats.

Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up?

A.
Zero Trust
A.
Zero Trust
Answers
B.
AAA
B.
AAA
Answers
C.
Non-repudiation
C.
Non-repudiation
Answers
D.
CIA
D.
CIA
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company-wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.

5: This source explains the concept and benefits of Zero Trust security and how it differs from traditional security models.

8: This source provides an overview of Zero Trust identity security and how it can help verify the identity and integrity of users and devices.

Which of the following describes the maximum allowance of accepted risk?

A.
Risk indicator
A.
Risk indicator
Answers
B.
Risk level
B.
Risk level
Answers
C.
Risk score
C.
Risk score
Answers
D.
Risk threshold
D.
Risk threshold
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Risk threshold is the maximum amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept for a given activity or decision. It is also known as risk appetite or risk tolerance. Risk threshold helps an organization to prioritize and allocate resources for risk management. Risk indicator, risk level, and risk score are different ways of measuring or expressing the likelihood and impact of a risk, but they do not describe the maximum allowance of accepted risk.Reference:CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 34;Accepting Risk: Definition, How It Works, and Alternatives

Which of the following incident response activities ensures evidence is properly handied?

A.
E-discovery
A.
E-discovery
Answers
B.
Chain of custody
B.
Chain of custody
Answers
C.
Legal hold
C.
Legal hold
Answers
D.
Preservation
D.
Preservation
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Chain of custody is the process of documenting and preserving the integrity of evidence collected during an incident response. It involves recording the details of each person who handled the evidence, the time and date of each transfer, and the location where the evidence was stored. Chain of custody ensures that the evidence is admissible in legal proceedings and can be traced back to its source. E-discovery, legal hold, and preservation are related concepts, but they do not ensure evidence is properly handled.Reference:CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 487;NIST SP 800-61: 3.2. Evidence Gathering and Handling

Which of the following risk management strategies should an enterprise adopt first if a legacy application is critical to business operations and there are preventative controls that are not yet implemented?

A.
Mitigate
A.
Mitigate
Answers
B.
Accept
B.
Accept
Answers
C.
Transfer
C.
Transfer
Answers
D.
Avoid
D.
Avoid
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Mitigate is the risk management strategy that involves reducing the likelihood or impact of a risk. If a legacy application is critical to business operations and there are preventative controls that are not yet implemented, the enterprise should adopt the mitigate strategy first to address the existing vulnerabilities and gaps in the application. This could involve applying patches, updates, or configuration changes to the application, or adding additional layers of security controls around the application. Accept, transfer, and avoid are other risk management strategies, but they are not the best options for this scenario. Accept means acknowledging the risk and accepting the consequences without taking any action. Transfer means shifting the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company or a vendor. Avoid means eliminating the risk by removing the source or changing the process.These strategies may not be feasible or desirable for a legacy application that is critical to business operations and has no preventative controls in place.Reference:CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1221; A Risk-Based Framework for Legacy System Migration and Deprecation2

Which of the following teams combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems?

A.
Red
A.
Red
Answers
B.
Blue
B.
Blue
Answers
C.
Purple
C.
Purple
Answers
D.
Yellow
D.
Yellow
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization's systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization's systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization. Red, blue, and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine both offensive and defensive techniques.The yellow team is the team that builds software solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security testing.Reference:CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1331; Penetration Testing: Understanding Red, Blue, & Purple Teams3

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