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HOTSPOT

Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.

INSTRUCTIONS

Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.


Question 91
Correct answer: Question 91

Explanation:

Web server Botnet Enable DDoS protection

User RAT Implement a host-based IPS

Database server Worm Change the default application password

Executive Keylogger Disable vulnerable services

Application Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification


After a recent ransomware attack on a company's system, an administrator reviewed the log files. Which of the following control types did the administrator use?

A.
Compensating
A.
Compensating
Answers
B.
Detective
B.
Detective
Answers
C.
Preventive
C.
Preventive
Answers
D.
Corrective
D.
Corrective
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, and antivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the company's system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.

Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under ''About the exam'', bullet point 3: ''Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.''

CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: ''Detective controls are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network.''

Control Types -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 2.1 - Professor Messer IT ..., under ''Detective Controls'': ''Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network.''

Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?

A.
SOW
A.
SOW
Answers
B.
SLA
B.
SLA
Answers
C.
MOA
C.
MOA
Answers
D.
MOU
D.
MOU
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.

Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under ''About the exam'', bullet point 3: ''Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.''

CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: ''Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider.''

A Chief Information Security Officer wants to monitor the company's servers for SQLi attacks and allow for comprehensive investigations if an attack occurs. The company uses SSL decryption to allow traffic monitoring. Which of the following strategies would best accomplish this goal?

A.
Logging all NetFlow traffic into a SIEM
A.
Logging all NetFlow traffic into a SIEM
Answers
B.
Deploying network traffic sensors on the same subnet as the servers
B.
Deploying network traffic sensors on the same subnet as the servers
Answers
C.
Logging endpoint and OS-specific security logs
C.
Logging endpoint and OS-specific security logs
Answers
D.
Enabling full packet capture for traffic entering and exiting the servers
D.
Enabling full packet capture for traffic entering and exiting the servers
Most voted
Answers (4)
Most voted
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation.

Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 372-373

A company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. Which of the following describes how this data will most likely be classified? (Select two).

A.
Private
A.
Private
Answers
B.
Confidential
B.
Confidential
Answers
C.
Public
C.
Public
Answers
D.
Operational
D.
Operational
Answers
E.
Urgent
E.
Urgent
Answers
F.
Restricted
F.
Restricted
Answers
Suggested answer: B, F

Explanation:

Data classification is the process of assigning labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact.Different organizations and sectors may have different data classification schemes, but a common one is the following1:

Public: Data that can be freely disclosed to anyone without any harm or risk.

Private: Data that is intended for internal use only and may cause some harm or risk if disclosed.

Confidential: Data that is intended for authorized use only and may cause significant harm or risk if disclosed.

Restricted: Data that is intended for very limited use only and may cause severe harm or risk if disclosed.

In this scenario, the company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. This data is likely to be classified as confidential and restricted, because it is not meant for public or private use, and it may cause serious damage to national security or public safety if disclosed.The government may also have specific requirements or regulations for handling such data, such as encryption, access control, and auditing2.

Reference:1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-172:Data Classification Practices: Final Project Description Released

After reviewing the following vulnerability scanning report:

Server:192.168.14.6

Service: Telnet

Port: 23 Protocol: TCP

Status: Open Severity: High

Vulnerability: Use of an insecure network protocol

A security analyst performs the following test:

nmap -p 23 192.168.14.6 ---script telnet-encryption

PORT STATE SERVICE REASON

23/tcp open telnet syn-ack

I telnet encryption:

| _ Telnet server supports encryption

Which of the following would the security analyst conclude for this reported vulnerability?

A.
It is a false positive.
A.
It is a false positive.
Answers
B.
A rescan is required.
B.
A rescan is required.
Answers
C.
It is considered noise.
C.
It is considered noise.
Answers
D.
Compensating controls exist.
D.
Compensating controls exist.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server.The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3.

Reference:3:Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?

A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?

A.
EAP
A.
EAP
Answers
B.
DHCP
B.
DHCP
Answers
C.
IPSec
C.
IPSec
Answers
D.
NAT
D.
NAT
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control.A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client's network.Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 3851

Which of the following best practices gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system to ensure availability and minimize business impacts?

A.
Impact analysis
A.
Impact analysis
Answers
B.
Scheduled downtime
B.
Scheduled downtime
Answers
C.
Backout plan
C.
Backout plan
Answers
D.
Change management boards
D.
Change management boards
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Scheduled downtime is a planned period of time when a system or service is unavailable for maintenance, updates, upgrades, or other changes. Scheduled downtime gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system without disrupting the normal business operations or affecting the availability of the system or service.Scheduled downtime also allows administrators to inform the users and stakeholders about the expected duration and impact of the changes.Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 12: Security Operations and Administration, page 5791

Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?

A.
Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
A.
Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
Answers
B.
Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
B.
Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
Answers
C.
Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
C.
Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
Answers
D.
Install endpoint management software on all systems.
D.
Install endpoint management software on all systems.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints.The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose.Reference:CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1371

After a security awareness training session, a user called the IT help desk and reported a suspicious call. The suspicious caller stated that the Chief Financial Officer wanted credit card information in order to close an invoice. Which of the following topics did the user recognize from the training?

A.
Insider threat
A.
Insider threat
Answers
B.
Email phishing
B.
Email phishing
Answers
C.
Social engineering
C.
Social engineering
Answers
D.
Executive whaling
D.
Executive whaling
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Social engineering is the practice of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, often by impersonating someone else or creating a sense of urgency or trust. The suspicious caller in this scenario was trying to use social engineering to trick the user into giving away credit card information by pretending to be the CFO and asking for a payment. The user recognized this as a potential scam and reported it to the IT help desk.The other topics are not relevant to this situation.Reference:CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 191

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