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An administrator discovers that some files on a database server were recently encrypted. The administrator sees from the security logs that the data was last accessed by a domain user. Which of the following best describes the type of attack that occurred?

A.
Insider threat
A.
Insider threat
Answers
B.
Social engineering
B.
Social engineering
Answers
C.
Watering-hole
C.
Watering-hole
Answers
D.
Unauthorized attacker
D.
Unauthorized attacker
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization's network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.

Which of the following automation use cases would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company?

A.
Provisioning resources
A.
Provisioning resources
Answers
B.
Disabling access
B.
Disabling access
Answers
C.
Reviewing change approvals
C.
Reviewing change approvals
Answers
D.
Escalating permission requests
D.
Escalating permission requests
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Disabling access is an automation use case that would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company. Disabling access is the process of revoking or suspending the access rights of a user account, such as login credentials, email, VPN, cloud services, etc. Disabling access can prevent unauthorized or malicious use of the account by former employees or attackers who may have compromised the account. Disabling access can also reduce the attack surface and the risk of data breaches or leaks. Disabling access can be automated by using scripts, tools, or workflows that can trigger the action based on predefined events, such as employee termination, resignation, or transfer. Automation can ensure that the access is disabled in a timely, consistent, and efficient manner, without relying on manual intervention or human error.

Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Select two).

A.
Ease of recovery
A.
Ease of recovery
Answers
B.
Ability to patch
B.
Ability to patch
Answers
C.
Physical isolation
C.
Physical isolation
Answers
D.
Responsiveness
D.
Responsiveness
Answers
E.
Attack surface
E.
Attack surface
Answers
F.
Extensible authentication
F.
Extensible authentication
Answers
Suggested answer: A, E

Explanation:

A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of critical services and applications. To achieve this goal, a high-availability network must consider two important factors: ease of recovery and attack surface.

Ease of recovery refers to the ability of a network to quickly restore normal functionality after a failure, disruption, or disaster. A high-availability network should have mechanisms such as redundancy, failover, backup, and restore to ensure that any single point of failure does not cause a complete network outage. A high-availability network should also have procedures and policies for incident response, disaster recovery, and business continuity to minimize the impact of any network issue on the organization's operations and reputation.

Attack surface refers to the exposure of a network to potential threats and vulnerabilities. A high-availability network should have measures such as encryption, authentication, authorization, firewall, intrusion detection and prevention, and patch management to protect the network from unauthorized access, data breaches, malware, denial-of-service attacks, and other cyberattacks. A high-availability network should also have processes and tools for risk assessment, threat intelligence, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing to identify and mitigate any weaknesses or gaps in the network security.

Which of the following methods to secure credit card data is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card?

A.
Encryption
A.
Encryption
Answers
B.
Hashing
B.
Hashing
Answers
C.
Masking
C.
Masking
Answers
D.
Tokenization
D.
Tokenization
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Masking is a method to secure credit card data that involves replacing some or all of the digits with symbols, such as asterisks, dashes, or Xs, while leaving some of the original digits visible. Masking is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card, as it can prevent unauthorized access to the full card number, while still allowing identification and verification of the cardholder. Masking does not alter the original data, unlike encryption, hashing, or tokenization, which use algorithms to transform the data into different formats.

An administrator finds that all user workstations and servers are displaying a message that is associated with files containing an extension of .ryk. Which of the following types of infections is present on the systems?

A.
Virus
A.
Virus
Answers
B.
Trojan
B.
Trojan
Answers
C.
Spyware
C.
Spyware
Answers
D.
Ransomware
D.
Ransomware
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the victim's files and demands a ransom for the decryption key. The ransomware usually displays a message on the infected system with instructions on how to pay the ransom and recover the files.The .ryk extension is associated with a ransomware variant called Ryuk, which targets large organizations and demands high ransoms1.

A healthcare organization wants to provide a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies.

Which of the following is the most important consideration during development?

A.
Scalability
A.
Scalability
Answers
B.
Availability
B.
Availability
Answers
C.
Cost
C.
Cost
Answers
D.
Ease of deployment
D.
Ease of deployment
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Availability is the ability of a system or service to be accessible and usable when needed. For a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies, availability is the most important consideration during development, because any downtime or delay could have serious consequences for the health and safety of the users.The web application should be designed to handle high traffic, prevent denial-of-service attacks, and have backup and recovery plans in case of failures2.

An organization wants a third-party vendor to do a penetration test that targets a specific device. The organization has provided basic information about the device. Which of the following best describes this kind of penetration test?

A.
Partially known environment
A.
Partially known environment
Answers
B.
Unknown environment
B.
Unknown environment
Answers
C.
Integrated
C.
Integrated
Answers
D.
Known environment
D.
Known environment
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test.A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1.

A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks so that the administrator can track any changes. Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?

A.
SPF
A.
SPF
Answers
B.
GPO
B.
GPO
Answers
C.
NAC
C.
NAC
Answers
D.
FIM
D.
FIM
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data.

Some of the benefits of FIM are:

It can prevent data tampering and corruption by verifying the checksums or hashes of the files.

It can identify the source and time of the changes by logging the user and system actions.

It can enforce security policies and standards by comparing the current state of the data with the baseline or expected state.

It can support forensic analysis and incident response by providing evidence and audit trails of the changes.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Technologies and Tools, Section 5.3: Security Tools, p. 209-210

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Technologies and Tools, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, analyze and interpret output from security technologies, Sub-objective: File integrity monitor, p. 12

Which of the following is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities?

A.
Preparation
A.
Preparation
Answers
B.
Recovery
B.
Recovery
Answers
C.
Lessons learned
C.
Lessons learned
Answers
D.
Analysis
D.
Analysis
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Preparation is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities, as well as the policies and procedures for handling incidents. Preparation also involves gathering and maintaining the necessary tools, resources, and contacts for responding to incidents. Preparation can help a security analyst to be ready and proactive when an incident occurs, as well as to reduce the impact and duration of the incident.

Some of the activities that a security analyst performs during the preparation phase are:

Defining the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team members, such as the incident manager, the incident coordinator, the technical lead, the communications lead, and the legal advisor.

Establishing the incident response plan, which outlines the objectives, scope, authority, and procedures for responding to incidents, as well as the escalation and reporting mechanisms.

Developing the incident response policy, which defines the types and categories of incidents, the severity levels, the notification and reporting requirements, and the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders.

Creating the incident response playbook, which provides the step-by-step guidance and checklists for handling specific types of incidents, such as denial-of-service, ransomware, phishing, or data breach.

Acquiring and testing the incident response tools, such as network and host-based scanners, malware analysis tools, forensic tools, backup and recovery tools, and communication and collaboration tools.

Identifying and securing the incident response resources, such as the incident response team, the incident response location, the evidence storage, and the external support.

Building and maintaining the incident response contacts, such as the internal and external stakeholders, the law enforcement agencies, the regulatory bodies, and the media.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6: Architecture and Design, Section 6.4: Secure Systems Design, p. 279-280

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts, Sub-objective: Incident response, p. 16

A company is discarding a classified storage array and hires an outside vendor to complete the disposal. Which of the following should the company request from the vendor?

A.
Certification
A.
Certification
Answers
B.
Inventory list
B.
Inventory list
Answers
C.
Classification
C.
Classification
Answers
D.
Proof of ownership
D.
Proof of ownership
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company's policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or recovery.A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel involved.Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 1441

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