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During an investigation, an incident response team attempts to understand the source of an incident. Which of the following incident response activities describes this process?

A.
Analysis
A.
Analysis
Answers
B.
Lessons learned
B.
Lessons learned
Answers
C.
Detection
C.
Detection
Answers
D.
Containment
D.
Containment
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Analysis is the incident response activity that describes the process of understanding the source of an incident. Analysis involves collecting and examining evidence, identifying the root cause, determining the scope and impact, and assessing the threat actor's motives and capabilities. Analysis helps the incident response team to formulate an appropriate response strategy, as well as to prevent or mitigate future incidents. Analysis is usually performed after detection and before containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 223. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.2, page 13.

A security practitioner completes a vulnerability assessment on a company's network and finds several vulnerabilities, which the operations team remediates. Which of the following should be done next?

A.
Conduct an audit.
A.
Conduct an audit.
Answers
B.
Initiate a penetration test.
B.
Initiate a penetration test.
Answers
C.
Rescan the network.
C.
Rescan the network.
Answers
D.
Submit a report.
D.
Submit a report.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

After completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the identified vulnerabilities, the next step is to rescan the network to verify that the vulnerabilities have been successfully fixed and no new vulnerabilities have been introduced. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and exposures in a network, system, or application that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability assessment typically involves using automated tools, such as scanners, to scan the network and generate a report of the findings. The report may include information such as the severity, impact, and remediation of the vulnerabilities. The operations team is responsible for applying the appropriate patches, updates, or configurations to address the vulnerabilities and reduce the risk to the network. A rescan is necessary to confirm that the remediation actions have been effective and that the network is secure.

Conducting an audit, initiating a penetration test, or submitting a report are not the next steps after completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the vulnerabilities. An audit is a process of reviewing and verifying the compliance of the network with the established policies, standards, and regulations. An audit may be performed by internal or external auditors, and it may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as part of the evidence. However, an audit is not a mandatory step after a vulnerability assessment, and it does not validate the effectiveness of the remediation actions.

A penetration test is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network to test the security defenses and identify any gaps or weaknesses. A penetration test may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as a starting point, but it goes beyond scanning and involves exploiting the vulnerabilities to gain access or cause damage. A penetration test may be performed after a vulnerability assessment, but only with the proper authorization, scope, and rules of engagement. A penetration test is not a substitute for a rescan, as it does not verify that the vulnerabilities have been fixed.

Submitting a report is a step that is done after the vulnerability assessment, but before the remediation. The report is a document that summarizes the findings and recommendations of the vulnerability assessment, and it is used to communicate the results to the stakeholders and the operations team. The report may also include a follow-up plan and a timeline for the remediation actions. However, submitting a report is not the final step after the remediation, as it does not confirm that the network is secure.

Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 372-375;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 0:00 - 8:00.

An administrator was notified that a user logged in remotely after hours and copied large amounts of data to a personal device.

Which of the following best describes the user's activity?

A.
Penetration testing
A.
Penetration testing
Answers
B.
Phishing campaign
B.
Phishing campaign
Answers
C.
External audit
C.
External audit
Answers
D.
Insider threat
D.
Insider threat
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

An insider threat is a security risk that originates from within the organization, such as an employee, contractor, or business partner, who has authorized access to the organization's data and systems. An insider threat can be malicious, such as stealing, leaking, or sabotaging sensitive data, or unintentional, such as falling victim to phishing or social engineering. An insider threat can cause significant damage to the organization's reputation, finances, operations, and legal compliance. The user's activity of logging in remotely after hours and copying large amounts of data to a personal device is an example of a malicious insider threat, as it violates the organization's security policies and compromises the confidentiality and integrity of the data.Reference=Insider Threats -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 3.2, video at 0:00;CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 133.

Which of the following allows for the attribution of messages to individuals?

A.
Adaptive identity
A.
Adaptive identity
Answers
B.
Non-repudiation
B.
Non-repudiation
Answers
C.
Authentication
C.
Authentication
Answers
D.
Access logs
D.
Access logs
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a message or document was sent or signed by a particular person, and that the person cannot deny sending or signing it. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using cryptographic techniques, such as hashing and digital signatures, that can verify the authenticity and integrity of the message or document. Non-repudiation can be useful for legal, financial, or contractual purposes, as it can provide evidence of the origin and content of the message or document.Reference=Non-repudiation -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -- 1.2,CompTIA Security+ SY0-301: 6.1 -- Non-repudiation, CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 2.

Which of the following is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified?

A.
Automation
A.
Automation
Answers
B.
Compliance checklist
B.
Compliance checklist
Answers
C.
Attestation
C.
Attestation
Answers
D.
Manual audit
D.
Manual audit
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files.Automation can also alert security personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12.

The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:

Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to.A compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3.

Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact.Attestation can be used to provide assurance or evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis4.

Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis.

Reference=1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -- 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's PII?

A.
SCAP
A.
SCAP
Answers
B.
Net Flow
B.
Net Flow
Answers
C.
Antivirus
C.
Antivirus
Answers
D.
DLP
D.
DLP
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a tool that can assist with detecting and preventing the unauthorized transmission or leakage of sensitive data, such as a customer's PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can monitor, filter, and block data in motion (such as emails), data at rest (such as files), and data in use (such as applications). DLP can also alert the sender, the recipient, or the administrator of the data breach, and apply remediation actions, such as encryption, quarantine, or deletion. DLP can help an organization comply with data protection regulations, such as GDPR, HIPAA, or PCI DSS, and protect its reputation and assets.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 78. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.5, page 11.

An organization recently updated its security policy to include the following statement:

Regular expressions are included in source code to remove special characters such as $, |, ;. &, `, and ? from variables set by forms in a web application.

Which of the following best explains the security technique the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy?

A.
Identify embedded keys
A.
Identify embedded keys
Answers
B.
Code debugging
B.
Code debugging
Answers
C.
Input validation
C.
Input validation
Answers
D.
Static code analysis
D.
Static code analysis
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to inject commands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.

Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.

Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.

A security analyst and the management team are reviewing the organizational performance of a recent phishing campaign. The user click-through rate exceeded the acceptable risk threshold, and the management team wants to reduce the impact when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. Which of the following should the analyst do?

A.
Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities.
A.
Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities.
Answers
B.
Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered
B.
Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered
Answers
C.
Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
C.
Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
Answers
D.
Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts.
D.
Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user's awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.

The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user's knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user's skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question.Reference=Endpoint Detection and Response -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -- 2.2, video at 5:30;CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 163.

A company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks.

Which of the following analysis elements did the company most likely use in making this decision?

A.
IMTTR
A.
IMTTR
Answers
B.
RTO
B.
RTO
Answers
C.
ARO
C.
ARO
Answers
D.
MTBF
D.
MTBF
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is an analysis element that measures the frequency or likelihood of an event happening in a given year. ARO is often used in risk assessment and management, as it helps to estimate the potential loss or impact of an event. A company can use ARO to calculate the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) of an event, which is the product of ARO and the single loss expectancy (SLE). ALE represents the expected cost of an event per year, and can be used to compare with the cost of implementing a security control or purchasing an insurance policy.

The company most likely used ARO in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. The company may have estimated the ARO of ransomware attacks based on historical data, industry trends, or threat intelligence, and found that the ARO was low or negligible. The company may have also calculated the ALE of ransomware attacks, and found that the ALE was lower than the cost of the insurance policy. Therefore, the company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks, as it deemed the risk to be acceptable or manageable.

IMTTR (Incident Management Team Training and Readiness), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are not analysis elements that the company most likely used in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. IMTTR is a process of preparing and training the incident management team to respond effectively to security incidents. IMTTR does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the capability and readiness of the team. RTO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption. RTO does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the availability and continuity of the system or service. MTBF is a metric that measures the average time between failures of a system or component. MTBF does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the reliability and performance of the system or component.

Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97-98;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.2 - Risk Management, 0:00 - 3:00.

Which of the following is the most likely to be included as an element of communication in a security awareness program?

A.
Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities
A.
Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities
Answers
B.
Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition
B.
Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition
Answers
C.
Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data
C.
Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data
Answers
D.
Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing
D.
Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A security awareness program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to educate and inform the users and employees of an organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices. A security awareness program can help to reduce the human factor in security risks, such as social engineering, phishing, malware, data breaches, and insider threats. A security awareness program should include various elements of communication, such as newsletters, posters, videos, webinars, quizzes, games, simulations, and feedback mechanisms, to deliver the security messages and reinforce the security culture. One of the most likely elements of communication to be included in a security awareness program is reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities, as this can help to raise the awareness of the users and employees about the common types of cyberattacks and how to respond to them. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities can also help to alert the security team and enable them to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of the attacks. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.

The other options are not as likely to be included as elements of communication in a security awareness program, because they are either technical or operational tasks that are not directly related to the security awareness of the users and employees. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition is a technical task that involves using security tools or systems to monitor and analyze the activities and behaviors of the users and employees and identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate malicious or unauthorized actions. This task is usually performed by the security team or the security operations center, and it does not require the communication or participation of the users and employees. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data is an operational task that involves using verification methods, such as phone calls, emails, or digital signatures, to confirm the authenticity and accuracy of the information related to wire transfers, such as the account number, the amount, or the recipient. This task is usually performed by the financial or accounting department, and it does not involve the security awareness of the users and employees. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing is a technical task that involves using deception or manipulation techniques, such as phishing, vishing, or impersonation, to test the security posture and the vulnerability of the users and employees to social engineering attacks. This task is usually performed by external security professionals or consultants, and it does not require the communication or consent of the users and employees. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question.Reference=Security Awareness and Training -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 5.2, video at 0:00;CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263.

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