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Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries?

A.
Insider
A.
Insider
Answers
B.
Unskilled attacker
B.
Unskilled attacker
Answers
C.
Nation-state
C.
Nation-state
Answers
D.
Hacktivist
D.
Hacktivist
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure.Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12.Reference=1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -- 2.1, video by Professor Messer.

Which of the following enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data?

A.
Cross-site scripting
A.
Cross-site scripting
Answers
B.
Side loading
B.
Side loading
Answers
C.
Buffer overflow
C.
Buffer overflow
Answers
D.
SQL injection
D.
SQL injection
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

= SQL injection is a type of attack that enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data in a database. SQL stands for Structured Query Language, which is a language used to communicate with databases. By injecting malicious SQL statements into an input field, an attacker can bypass authentication, access sensitive information, modify or delete data, or execute commands on the server. SQL injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application vulnerabilities.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 195. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 8.

Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the following is the type of data these employees are most likely to use in day-to-day work activities?

A.
Encrypted
A.
Encrypted
Answers
B.
Intellectual property
B.
Intellectual property
Answers
C.
Critical
C.
Critical
Answers
D.
Data in transit
D.
Data in transit
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Intellectual property is a type of data that consists of ideas, inventions, designs, or other creative works that have commercial value and are protected by law. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property data in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products or services for the company. Intellectual property data needs to be protected from unauthorized use, disclosure, or theft, as it can give the company a competitive advantage in the market. Therefore, these employees receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect this type of data.Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 1.2 - Security Concepts, 7:57 - 9:03.

A company has begun labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. Which of the following security benefits do these actions provide? (Choose two.)

A.
If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified.
A.
If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified.
Answers
B.
The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device.
B.
The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device.
Answers
C.
Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens.
C.
Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens.
Answers
D.
User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops.
D.
User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops.
Answers
E.
When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops.
E.
When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops.
Answers
F.
Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization.
F.
Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization.
Answers
Suggested answer: A, F

Explanation:

Labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs can provide several security benefits for a company. Two of these benefits are:

A) If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified. An asset inventory sticker is a label that contains a unique identifier for a laptop, such as a serial number, a barcode, or a QR code. By associating this identifier with an employee ID, the security team can easily track and locate the owner of the laptop in case of a security incident, such as a malware infection, a data breach, or a theft. This way, the security team can notify the correct employee about the incident, and provide them with the necessary instructions or actions to take, such as changing passwords, scanning for viruses, or reporting the loss. This can help to contain the incident, minimize the damage, and prevent further escalation.

F) Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization. When an employee leaves the organization, the company needs to ensure that all the company data and assets are returned or deleted from the employee's laptop. By labeling the laptop with an asset inventory sticker and associating it with an employee ID, the company can easily identify and verify the laptop that belongs to the departing employee, and perform the appropriate data backup, wipe, or transfer procedures. This can help to protect the company data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the former employee or any other party.

The other options are not correct because they are not related to the security benefits of labeling laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. B. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device. User awareness training is a type of security education that aims to improve the knowledge and behavior of users regarding security threats and best practices. The security team can send user awareness training to the appropriate device by using the email address, username, or IP address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. C. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens. Software MFA tokens are a type of multi-factor authentication that uses a software application to generate a one-time password or a push notification for verifying the identity of a user. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens by using the device ID, phone number, or email address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. D. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops. User-based firewall policies are a type of firewall rules that apply to specific users or groups of users, regardless of the device or location they use to access the network. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops by using the username, domain, or certificate of the user, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. E. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops. Penetration testing is a type of security assessment that simulates a real-world attack on a network or system to identify and exploit vulnerabilities. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops by using the IP address, hostname, or MAC address of the laptop, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 17.Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.4: Asset Management, video: Asset Inventory (6:12).

A technician wants to improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work. Which of the following is the best option?

A.
Send out periodic security reminders.
A.
Send out periodic security reminders.
Answers
B.
Update the content of new hire documentation.
B.
Update the content of new hire documentation.
Answers
C.
Modify the content of recurring training.
C.
Modify the content of recurring training.
Answers
D.
Implement a phishing campaign
D.
Implement a phishing campaign
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Recurring training is a type of security awareness training that is conducted periodically to refresh and update the knowledge and skills of the users. Recurring training can help improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work, as it can cover the latest threats, best practices, and policies that are relevant to their work environment. Modifying the content of recurring training can ensure that the users are aware of the current security landscape and the expectations of their roles.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 232. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.

A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?

A.
Packet captures
A.
Packet captures
Answers
B.
Vulnerability scans
B.
Vulnerability scans
Answers
C.
Metadata
C.
Metadata
Answers
D.
Dashboard
D.
Dashboard
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes.A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12.

A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment.A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13.

A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers.A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.

Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context.Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors.Reference=1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97.

A systems administrator receives the following alert from a file integrity monitoring tool:

The hash of the cmd.exe file has changed.

The systems administrator checks the OS logs and notices that no patches were applied in the last two months. Which of the following most likely occurred?

A.
The end user changed the file permissions.
A.
The end user changed the file permissions.
Answers
B.
A cryptographic collision was detected.
B.
A cryptographic collision was detected.
Answers
C.
A snapshot of the file system was taken.
C.
A snapshot of the file system was taken.
Answers
D.
A rootkit was deployed.
D.
A rootkit was deployed.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A rootkit is a type of malware that modifies or replaces system files or processes to hide its presence and activity. A rootkit can change the hash of the cmd.exe file, which is a command-line interpreter for Windows systems, to avoid detection by antivirus or file integrity monitoring tools. A rootkit can also grant the attacker remote access and control over the infected system, as well as perform malicious actions such as stealing data, installing backdoors, or launching attacks on other systems. A rootkit is one of the most difficult types of malware to remove, as it can persist even after rebooting or reinstalling the OS.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 147. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 9.

Which of the following roles, according to the shared responsibility model, is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment?

A.
Client
A.
Client
Answers
B.
Third-party vendor
B.
Third-party vendor
Answers
C.
Cloud provider
C.
Cloud provider
Answers
D.
DBA
D.
DBA
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

According to the shared responsibility model, the client and the cloud provider have different roles and responsibilities for securing the cloud environment, depending on the service model. In an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, the cloud provider is responsible for securing the physical infrastructure, such as the servers, storage, and network devices, while the client is responsible for securing the operating systems, applications, and data that run on the cloud infrastructure. Therefore, the client is responsible for securing the company's database in an IaaS model for a cloud environment, as the database is an application that stores data. The client can use various security controls, such as encryption, access control, backup, and auditing, to protect the database from unauthorized access, modification, or loss. The third-party vendor and the DBA (Database Administrator) are not roles defined by the shared responsibility model, but they may be involved in the implementation or management of the database security.Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263-264;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 5:00 - 7:40.

A client asked a security company to provide a document outlining the project, the cost, and the completion time frame. Which of the following documents should the company provide to the client?

A.
MSA
A.
MSA
Answers
B.
SLA
B.
SLA
Answers
C.
BPA
C.
BPA
Answers
D.
SOW
D.
SOW
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.

The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387.Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).

A security team is reviewing the findings in a report that was delivered after a third party performed a penetration test. One of the findings indicated that a web application form field is vulnerable to cross-site scripting. Which of the following application security techniques should the security analyst recommend the developer implement to prevent this vulnerability?

A.
Secure cookies
A.
Secure cookies
Answers
B.
Version control
B.
Version control
Answers
C.
Input validation
C.
Input validation
Answers
D.
Code signing
D.
Code signing
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the web application. Input validation can prevent cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks, which exploit the vulnerability of a web application to execute malicious scripts in the browser of a victim. XSS attacks can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the web application and its users. Input validation can be implemented on both the client-side and the server-side, but server-side validation is more reliable and secure. Input validation can use various methods, such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, escaping, encoding, and sanitizing the input data.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 70. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11.Application Security -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2

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