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Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Choose two).

A.
Ease of recovery
A.
Ease of recovery
Answers
B.
Ability to patch
B.
Ability to patch
Answers
C.
Physical isolation
C.
Physical isolation
Answers
D.
Responsiveness
D.
Responsiveness
Answers
E.
Attack surface
E.
Attack surface
Answers
F.
Extensible authentication
F.
Extensible authentication
Answers
Suggested answer: A, E

Explanation:

A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation even in the event of a failure or disruption.A high-availability network must consider the following factors12:

Ease of recovery: This refers to the ability of the network to restore normal functionality quickly and efficiently after a failure or disruption. Ease of recovery can be achieved by implementing backup and restore procedures, redundancy and failover mechanisms, fault tolerance and resilience, and disaster recovery plans.

Attack surface: This refers to the amount of exposure and vulnerability of the network to potential threats and attacks. Attack surface can be reduced by implementing security controls such as firewalls, encryption, authentication, access control, segmentation, and hardening.

The other options are not directly related to high-availability network design:

Ability to patch: This refers to the process of updating and fixing software components to address security issues, bugs, or performance improvements. Ability to patch is important for maintaining the security and functionality of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.

Physical isolation: This refers to the separation of network components or devices from other networks or physical environments. Physical isolation can enhance the security and performance of the network, but it can also reduce the availability and accessibility of the network resources.

Responsiveness: This refers to the speed and quality of the network's performance and service delivery. Responsiveness can be measured by metrics such as latency, throughput, jitter, and packet loss. Responsiveness is important for ensuring customer satisfaction and user experience, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.

Extensible authentication: This refers to the ability of the network to support multiple and flexible authentication methods and protocols. Extensible authentication can improve the security and convenience of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.

Reference=1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 -- 3.4, video by Professor Messer.

A technician needs to apply a high-priority patch to a production system. Which of the following steps should be taken first?

A.
Air gap the system.
A.
Air gap the system.
Answers
B.
Move the system to a different network segment.
B.
Move the system to a different network segment.
Answers
C.
Create a change control request.
C.
Create a change control request.
Answers
D.
Apply the patch to the system.
D.
Apply the patch to the system.
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

= A change control request is a document that describes the proposed change to a system, the reason for the change, the expected impact, the approval process, the testing plan, the implementation plan, the rollback plan, and the communication plan. A change control request is a best practice for applying any patch to a production system, especially a high-priority one, as it ensures that the change is authorized, documented, tested, and communicated. A change control request also minimizes the risk of unintended consequences, such as system downtime, data loss, or security breaches.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 235. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 13.

Which of the following describes the reason root cause analysis should be conducted as part of incident response?

A.
To gather loCs for the investigation
A.
To gather loCs for the investigation
Answers
B.
To discover which systems have been affected
B.
To discover which systems have been affected
Answers
C.
To eradicate any trace of malware on the network
C.
To eradicate any trace of malware on the network
Answers
D.
To prevent future incidents of the same nature
D.
To prevent future incidents of the same nature
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Root cause analysis is a process of identifying and resolving the underlying factors that led to an incident. By conducting root cause analysis as part of incident response, security professionals can learn from the incident and implement corrective actions to prevent future incidents of the same nature. For example, if the root cause of a data breach was a weak password policy, the security team can enforce a stronger password policy and educate users on the importance of password security. Root cause analysis can also help to improve security processes, policies, and procedures, and to enhance security awareness and culture within the organization. Root cause analysis is not meant to gather loCs (indicators of compromise) for the investigation, as this is a task performed during the identification and analysis phases of incident response. Root cause analysis is also not meant to discover which systems have been affected or to eradicate any trace of malware on the network, as these are tasks performed during the containment and eradication phases of incident response.Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 424-425;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.1 - Incident Response, 9:55 - 11:18.

Which of the following is the most likely outcome if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment?

A.
Fines
A.
Fines
Answers
B.
Audit findings
B.
Audit findings
Answers
C.
Sanctions
C.
Sanctions
Answers
D.
Reputation damage
D.
Reputation damage
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.

If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.

The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank's security controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself. C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank's ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank's PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance. D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank's brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388.Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12).PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4.PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8.PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]

A company is developing a business continuity strategy and needs to determine how many staff members would be required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption. Which of the following best describes this step?

A.
Capacity planning
A.
Capacity planning
Answers
B.
Redundancy
B.
Redundancy
Answers
C.
Geographic dispersion
C.
Geographic dispersion
Answers
D.
Tablet exercise
D.
Tablet exercise
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Capacity planning is the process of determining the resources needed to meet the current and future demands of an organization. Capacity planning can help a company develop a business continuity strategy by estimating how many staff members would be required to sustain the business in the case of a disruption, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a pandemic. Capacity planning can also help a company optimize the use of its resources, reduce costs, and improve performance.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 184. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 14.Business Continuity -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.1

A company's legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries. Which of the following is the most effective way to limit this access?

A.
Data masking
A.
Data masking
Answers
B.
Encryption
B.
Encryption
Answers
C.
Geolocation policy
C.
Geolocation policy
Answers
D.
Data sovereignty regulation
D.
Data sovereignty regulation
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A geolocation policy is a policy that restricts or allows access to data or resources based on the geographic location of the user or device. A geolocation policy can be implemented using various methods, such as IP address filtering, GPS tracking, or geofencing.A geolocation policy can help the company's legal department to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive documents from individuals in high-risk countries12.

The other options are not effective ways to limit access based on location:

Data masking: This is a technique of obscuring or replacing sensitive data with fictitious or anonymized data.Data masking can protect the privacy and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location3.

Encryption: This is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can protect the integrity and confidentiality of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location.Encryption can also be bypassed by attackers who have the decryption key or method4.

Data sovereignty regulation: This is a set of laws or rules that govern the storage, processing, and transfer of data within a specific jurisdiction or country. Data sovereignty regulation can affect the availability and compliance of data, but it does not prevent access to data based on location. Data sovereignty regulation can also vary depending on the country or region.

Reference=1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: Account Policies -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.7, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1004: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 101. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 102.

Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?

A.
Firmware version
A.
Firmware version
Answers
B.
Buffer overflow
B.
Buffer overflow
Answers
C.
SQL injection
C.
SQL injection
Answers
D.
Cross-site scripting
D.
Cross-site scripting
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page 10.

While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a ''deny any'' policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable.

Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?

A.
Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
A.
Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
Answers
B.
Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
B.
Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
Answers
C.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any* policy prior to enabling the new policy
C.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any* policy prior to enabling the new policy
Answers
D.
Including an 'allow any1 policy above the 'deny any* policy
D.
Including an 'allow any1 policy above the 'deny any* policy
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment would prevent the issue of the 'deny any' policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct the problem before applying the policy to the production network.

Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy before implementing it.

Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any' policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic. Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company servers.

Including an 'allow any' policy above the 'deny any' policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the 'deny any' policy useless. A firewall policy is processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An 'allow any' policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall, regardless of the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the 'deny any' policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. Moreover, an 'allow any' policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network.Reference=CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 204-205;Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1 - Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00.

A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is the most appropriate?

A.
Testing input validation on the user input fields
A.
Testing input validation on the user input fields
Answers
B.
Performing code signing on company-developed software
B.
Performing code signing on company-developed software
Answers
C.
Performing static code analysis on the software
C.
Performing static code analysis on the software
Answers
D.
Ensuring secure cookies are use
D.
Ensuring secure cookies are use
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11.Application Security -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2

Which of the following can be used to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers?

A.
Honey pot
A.
Honey pot
Answers
B.
Video surveillance
B.
Video surveillance
Answers
C.
Zero Trust
C.
Zero Trust
Answers
D.
Geofencing
D.
Geofencing
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A honey pot is a system or a network that is designed to mimic a real production server and attract potential attackers. A honey pot can be used to identify the attacker's methods, techniques, and objectives without affecting the actual production servers.A honey pot can also divert the attacker's attention from the real targets and waste their time and resources12.

The other options are not effective ways to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers:

Video surveillance: This is a physical security technique that uses cameras and monitors to record and observe the activities in a certain area.Video surveillance can help to deter, detect, and investigate physical intrusions, but it does not directly identify the attacker's activities on the network or the servers3.

Zero Trust: This is a security strategy that assumes that no user, device, or network is trustworthy by default and requires strict verification and validation for every request and transaction.Zero Trust can help to improve the security posture and reduce the attack surface of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker's activities on the network or the servers4.

Geofencing: This is a security technique that uses geographic location as a criterion to restrict or allow access to data or resources.Geofencing can help to protect the data sovereignty and compliance of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker's activities on the network or the servers5.

Reference=1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Honeypots and Deception -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 985: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

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