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Which of the following statements best describes the MITRE ATT&CK framework?

A.
It provides a comprehensive method to test the security of applications.
A.
It provides a comprehensive method to test the security of applications.
Answers
B.
It provides threat intelligence sharing and development of action and mitigation strategies.
B.
It provides threat intelligence sharing and development of action and mitigation strategies.
Answers
C.
It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions.
C.
It helps identify and stop enemy activity by highlighting the areas where an attacker functions.
Answers
D.
It tracks and understands threats and is an open-source project that evolves.
D.
It tracks and understands threats and is an open-source project that evolves.
Answers
E.
It breaks down intrusions into a clearly defined sequence of phases.
E.
It breaks down intrusions into a clearly defined sequence of phases.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The MITRE ATT&CK framework is a knowledge base of cybercriminals' adversarial behaviors based on cybercriminals' known tactics, techniques and procedures (TTPs). It helps security teams model, detect, prevent and fight cybersecurity threats by simulating cyberattacks, creating security policies, controls and incident response plans, and sharing information with other security professionals. It is an open-source project that evolves with input from a global community of cybersecurity professionals1.

Reference: What is the MITRE ATT&CK Framework? | IBM

Which of the following entities should an incident manager work with to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice? (Select two).

A.
Law enforcement
A.
Law enforcement
Answers
B.
Governance
B.
Governance
Answers
C.
Legal
C.
Legal
Answers
D.
Manager
D.
Manager
Answers
E.
Public relations
E.
Public relations
Answers
F.
Human resources
F.
Human resources
Answers
Suggested answer: C, E

Explanation:

An incident manager should work with the legal and public relations entities to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice. The legal entity can provide guidance on the legal implications and obligations of disclosing the incident, such as compliance with data protection laws, contractual obligations, and liability issues. The public relations entity can help craft the appropriate message and tone for the public communication, as well as manage the reputation and image of the organization in the aftermath of the incident. These two entities can help the incident manager balance the need for transparency and accountability with the need for confidentiality and security12.

Reference: Incident Communication Templates, Incident Management: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian

Several critical bugs were identified during a vulnerability scan. The SLA risk requirement is that all critical vulnerabilities should be patched within 24 hours. After sending a notification to the asset owners, the patch cannot be deployed due to planned, routine system upgrades Which of the following is the best method to remediate the bugs?

A.
Reschedule the upgrade and deploy the patch
A.
Reschedule the upgrade and deploy the patch
Answers
B.
Request an exception to exclude the patch from installation
B.
Request an exception to exclude the patch from installation
Answers
C.
Update the risk register and request a change to the SLA
C.
Update the risk register and request a change to the SLA
Answers
D.
Notify the incident response team and rerun the vulnerability scan
D.
Notify the incident response team and rerun the vulnerability scan
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

When a patch cannot be deployed due to conflicting routine system upgrades, updating the risk register and requesting a change to the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a practical approach. It allows for re-evaluation of the risk and adjustment of the SLA to reflect the current situation.

Which of the following would likely be used to update a dashboard that integrates.....

A.
Webhooks
A.
Webhooks
Answers
B.
Extensible Markup Language
B.
Extensible Markup Language
Answers
C.
Threat feed combination
C.
Threat feed combination
Answers
D.
JavaScript Object Notation
D.
JavaScript Object Notation
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) is commonly used for transmitting data in web applications and would be suitable for updating dashboards that integrate various data sources. It's lightweight and easy to parse and generate.

Which of the following would eliminate the need for different passwords for a variety or internal application?

A.
CASB
A.
CASB
Answers
B.
SSO
B.
SSO
Answers
C.
PAM
C.
PAM
Answers
D.
MFA
D.
MFA
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to log in with a single ID and password to access multiple applications. It eliminates the need for different passwords for various internal applications, streamlining the authentication process.


A company recently removed administrator rights from all of its end user workstations. An analyst uses CVSSv3.1 exploitability metrics to prioritize the vulnerabilities for the workstations and produces the following information:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?

A.
nessie.explosion
A.
nessie.explosion
Answers
B.
vote.4p
B.
vote.4p
Answers
C.
sweet.bike
C.
sweet.bike
Answers
D.
great.skills
D.
great.skills
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

nessie.explosion should be prioritized for remediation, as it has the highest CVSSv3.1 exploitability score of 8.6. The exploitability score is a sub-score of the CVSSv3.1 base score, which reflects the ease and technical means by which the vulnerability can be exploited. The exploitability score is calculated based on four metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, and User Interaction. The higher the exploitability score, the more likely and feasible the vulnerability is to be exploited by an attacker12. nessie.explosion has the highest exploitability score because it has the lowest values for all four metrics: Network (AV:N), Low (AC:L), None (PR:N), and None (UI:N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over the network, without requiring any user interaction or privileges, and with low complexity. Therefore, nessie.explosion poses the greatest threat to the end user workstations, and should be remediated first. vote.4p, sweet.bike, and great.skills have lower exploitability scores because they have higher values for some of the metrics, such as Adjacent Network (AV:A), High (AC:H), Low (PR:L), or Required (UI:R). This means that the vulnerabilities are more difficult or less likely to be exploited, as they require physical proximity, user involvement, or some privileges34.

Reference: CVSS v3.1 Specification Document - FIRST, NVD - CVSS v3 Calculator, CVSS v3.1 User Guide - FIRST, CVSS v3.1 Examples - FIRST

Two employees in the finance department installed a freeware application that contained embedded malware. The network is robustly segmented based on areas of responsibility. These computers had critical sensitive information stored locally that needs to be recovered. The department manager advised all department employees to turn off their computers until the security team could be contacted about the issue. Which of the following is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive?

A.
Turn on all systems, scan for infection, and back up data to a USB storage device.
A.
Turn on all systems, scan for infection, and back up data to a USB storage device.
Answers
B.
Identify and remove the software installed on the impacted systems in the department.
B.
Identify and remove the software installed on the impacted systems in the department.
Answers
C.
Explain that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimage the devices.
C.
Explain that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimage the devices.
Answers
D.
Log on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups.
D.
Log on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups.
Answers
E.
Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline.
E.
Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline.
Answers
Suggested answer: E

Explanation:

Segmenting the entire department from the network and reviewing each computer offline is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive. This step can help contain the malware infection and prevent it from spreading to other systems or networks. Reviewing each computer offline can help identify the source and scope of the infection, and determine the best course of action for recovery12. Turning on all systems, scanning for infection, and backing up data to a USB storage device is a risky step, as it can activate the malware and cause further damage or data loss. It can also compromise the USB storage device and any other system that connects to it. Identifying and removing the software installed on the impacted systems in the department is a possible step, but it should be done after segmenting the department from the network and reviewing each computer offline. Explaining that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimaging the devices is a drastic step, as it can result in data loss and downtime. It should be done only as a last resort, and after backing up the data and verifying its integrity. Logging on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups is a dangerous step, as it can expose the administrator credentials and privileges to the malware, and allow it to escalate its access and capabilities34.

Reference: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Best Practices | SANS Institute, Malware Removal: How to Remove Malware from Your Device, How to Remove Malware From Your PC | PCMag

Which of the following actions would an analyst most likely perform after an incident has been investigated?

A.
Risk assessment
A.
Risk assessment
Answers
B.
Root cause analysis
B.
Root cause analysis
Answers
C.
Incident response plan
C.
Incident response plan
Answers
D.
Tabletop exercise
D.
Tabletop exercise
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A tabletop exercise is the most likely action that an analyst would perform after an incident has been investigated. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential incident scenario that involves the key stakeholders and decision-makers of the organization. The purpose of a tabletop exercise is to evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response plan, identify the gaps and weaknesses in the plan, and improve the communication and coordination among the incident response team and other parties. A tabletop exercise can help the analyst to learn from the incident investigation, test the assumptions and recommendations made during the investigation, and enhance the preparedness and resilience of the organization for future incidents12. Risk assessment, root cause analysis, and incident response plan are all actions that an analyst would perform before or during an incident investigation, not after. Risk assessment is the process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization. Root cause analysis is the method of finding the underlying or fundamental causes of an incident. Incident response plan is the document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for responding to an incident345.

Reference: Tabletop Exercises: Six Scenarios to Help Prepare Your Cybersecurity Team, Tabletop Exercises for Incident Response - SANS Institute, Risk Assessment - NIST, Root Cause Analysis - OWASP, Incident Response Plan | Ready.gov

An analyst has received an IPS event notification from the SIEM stating an IP address, which is known to be malicious, has attempted to exploit a zero-day vulnerability on several web servers. The exploit contained the following snippet:

/wp-json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout?sc=wp_insert_user&role=administrator

Which of the following controls would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet?

A.
Limit user creation to administrators only.
A.
Limit user creation to administrators only.
Answers
B.
Limit layout creation to administrators only.
B.
Limit layout creation to administrators only.
Answers
C.
Set the directory trx_addons to read only for all users.
C.
Set the directory trx_addons to read only for all users.
Answers
D.
Set the directory v2 to read only for all users.
D.
Set the directory v2 to read only for all users.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Limiting user creation to administrators only would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet. The snippet shows an attempt to exploit a zero-day vulnerability in the ThemeREX Addons WordPress plugin, which allows remote code execution by invoking arbitrary PHP functions via the REST-API endpoint /wp-json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout. In this case, the attacker tries to use the wp_insert_user function to create a new administrator account on the WordPress site12. Limiting user creation to administrators only would prevent the attacker from succeeding, as they would need to provide valid administrator credentials to create a new user. This can be done by using a plugin or a code snippet that restricts user registration to administrators34. Limiting layout creation to administrators only, setting the directory trx_addons to read only for all users, and setting the directory v2 to read only for all users are not effective controls to mitigate the attack, as they do not address the core of the vulnerability, which is the lack of input validation and sanitization on the REST-API endpoint. Moreover, setting directories to read only may affect the functionality of the plugin or the WordPress site56.

Reference: Zero-Day Vulnerability in ThemeREX Addons Now Patched - Wordfence, Mitigating Zero Day Attacks With a Detection, Prevention ... - Spiceworks, How to Restrict WordPress User Registration to Specific Email ..., How to Limit WordPress User Registration to Specific Domains, WordPress File Permissions: A Guide to Securing Your Website, WordPress File Permissions: What is the Ideal Setting?

A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment Which of the following must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?

A.
Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques
A.
Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques
Answers
B.
Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning
B.
Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning
Answers
C.
Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans
C.
Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans
Answers
D.
Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours
D.
Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

In environments with fragile and legacy equipment, passive scanning is preferred to prevent any potential disruptions that active scanning might cause.

When assessing the security of an Operational Technology (OT) network, especially one with fragile and legacy equipment, it's crucial to use passive instead of active vulnerability scans. Active scanning can sometimes disrupt the operation of sensitive or older equipment. Passive scanning listens to network traffic without sending probing requests, thus minimizing the risk of disruption.

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