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Which of the following would be the easiest component to upgrade on a laptop that is experiencing slow performance?

A.
Motherboard
A.
Motherboard
Answers
B.
GPU
B.
GPU
Answers
C.
RAM
C.
RAM
Answers
D.
CPU
D.
CPU
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The easiest component to upgrade on a laptop that is experiencing slow performance is RAM. RAM stands for Random Access Memory, which is a type of volatile memory that stores data temporarily while the computer is running. RAM allows fast access and modification of data by the CPU, but it loses its contents when the power is turned off. Upgrading RAM can improve the performance of a laptop by increasing the amount of data that can be stored and processed at the same time, reducing the need for swapping or paging to the hard disk. Upgrading RAM on a laptop is usually easy, as it only requires opening a small panel on the back or side of the laptop and inserting or replacing the RAM modules into the slots. The motherboard is not the easiest component to upgrade on a laptop that is experiencing slow performance, but rather one of the most difficult components to upgrade.

The motherboard is the main circuit board of a computer that connects and controls all the other components, such as the CPU, RAM, GPU, etc. Upgrading the motherboard can improve the performance of a laptop by supporting newer or faster components, but it is also very complex, costly, and risky. Upgrading the motherboard on a laptop may require replacing or reconfiguring many other components, as well as ensuring compatibility and stability with the operating system and drivers. The GPU is not the easiest component to upgrade on a laptop that is experiencing slow performance, but rather one of the most difficult components to upgrade. The GPU stands for Graphics Processing Unit, which is a specialized component of a computer that handles graphics and image processing. Upgrading the GPU can improve the performance of a laptop by increasing the speed and quality of rendering graphics, especially for gaming or video editing applications.

However, upgrading the GPU on a laptop is usually very hard or impossible, as most laptops have integrated GPUs that are soldered to the motherboard or CPU and cannot be replaced or upgraded.

The CPU is not the easiest component to upgrade on a laptop that is experiencing slow performance, but rather one of the most difficult components to upgrade. The CPU stands for Central Processing Unit, which is the main component of a computer that executes instructions and performs calculations. Upgrading the CPU can improve the performance of a laptop by increasing the speed and efficiency of processing data, especially for multitasking or complex applications. However, upgrading the CPU on a laptop is usually very hard or impossible, as most laptops have integrated CPUs that are soldered to the motherboard and cannot be replaced or upgraded. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 1: IT Fundamentals

An online retailer experienced an outage. An investigation revealed that the server received more requests than it could handle, and customers could not log in as a result. Which of the following best describes this scenario?

A.
Hardware failure
A.
Hardware failure
Answers
B.
Denial of service
B.
Denial of service
Answers
C.
On-path attack
C.
On-path attack
Answers
D.
Social engineering
D.
Social engineering
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario where an online retailer experienced an outage because the server received more requests than it could handle and customers could not log in as a result is best described as a denial of service. A denial of service is a type of attack that aims to disrupt or prevent the normal functioning or availability of a system or network by overwhelming it with excessive traffic or requests. A denial of service can cause performance degradation, slowdown, or outage for the system or network and its legitimate users. A denial of service can be performed by a single attacker or a group of attackers using multiple compromised devices, which is called a distributed denial of service (DDoS). A hardware failure is not the scenario that describes the online retailer's outage, but rather a possible cause or consequence of the outage. A hardware failure is a malfunction or breakdown of a physical component of a system or network, such as a disk, a memory, a CPU, a power supply, etc. A hardware failure can cause data loss, corruption, or interruption for the system or network and its users. A hardware failure can be caused by various factors, such as wear and tear, physical damage, overheating, power surge, etc. A hardware failure can also be induced by a denial of service attack that damages the hardware by overloading it. An on-path attack is not the scenario that describes the online retailer's outage, but rather a type of network attack that involves intercepting or modifying data packets that are transmitted between two parties on a network. An on-path attack can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or authenticity of the data or communication between the parties. An on-path attack can be performed by an attacker who has access to the same network segment or device as one of the parties, such as a router, a switch, or a hub. An on-path attack can also be performed by an attacker who tricks one of the parties into sending data to them instead of the intended destination, which is called a man-in-the-middle attack.

A social engineering attack is not the scenario that describes the online retailer's outage, but rather a type of attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or revealing information that benefits the attacker. A social engineering attack can take various forms, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, pretexting, or tailgating. References:

The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts

Which of the following is the exact number of bytes in a gigabyte?

A.
1,024 bytes
A.
1,024 bytes
Answers
B.
1,048,576 bytes
B.
1,048,576 bytes
Answers
C.
1,073,741,824 bytes
C.
1,073,741,824 bytes
Answers
D.
1,099,511,627,776 bytes
D.
1,099,511,627,776 bytes
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The exact number of bytes in a gigabyte is 1.073.741.824 bytes. A byte is a unit of digital information that consists of eight bits. A bit is a binary digit that can have one of two values: 0 or 1. A byte can store one character, such as a letter, a number, or a symbol. A gigabyte is a unit of digital information that consists of 1.073.741.824 bytes or 1.024 megabytes. A megabyte is a unit of digital information that consists of 1.048.576 bytes or 1.024 kilobytes. A kilobyte is a unit of digital information that consists of 1.024 bytes. These units are based on the binary system, which uses powers of two to represent values. However, there are also decimal units that use powers of ten to represent values, such as gigabyte (GB), megabyte (MB), and kilobyte (KB). These units are often used by storage devices and network services to measure capacity or speed. In this case, one gigabyte (GB) equals 1 billion bytes or 1.000 megabytes (MB). One megabyte (MB) equals 1 million bytes or 1.000 kilobytes (KB). One kilobyte (KB) equals 1 thousand bytes. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 2: IT Concepts and Terminology

Which of the following are benefits of a security awareness training program9 (Select two).

A.
Enhances overall security
A.
Enhances overall security
Answers
B.
Provides information on how to avoid phishing
B.
Provides information on how to avoid phishing
Answers
C.
Lowers the incidence of hardware failures
C.
Lowers the incidence of hardware failures
Answers
D.
Increases the availability of computers
D.
Increases the availability of computers
Answers
E.
Advances end users' technical skills
E.
Advances end users' technical skills
Answers
F.
Creates IT security opportunities for end users
F.
Creates IT security opportunities for end users
Answers
Suggested answer: A, B

Explanation:

The benefits of a security awareness training program are enhancing overall security and providing information on how to avoid phishing. Enhancing overall security is a benefit of a security awareness training program because it helps users understand the importance and value of security for themselves and their organization. It also helps users develop good security habits and behaviors, such as choosing strong passwords, locking their devices, reporting incidents, etc., which can prevent or reduce security risks and threats. Providing information on how to avoid phishing is a benefit of a security awareness training program because it helps users recognize and respond to phishing attacks, which are one of the most common and effective types of social engineering attacks.

Phishing attacks involve sending fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from legitimate sources to trick recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or providing personal or financial information. A security awareness training program can teach users how to identify phishing signs, such as spelling errors, generic greetings, urgent requests, etc., and how to verify the sender, the URL, or the attachment before opening or responding. Lowering the incidence of hardware failures is not a benefit of a security awareness training program, but rather a benefit of a hardware maintenance program. A hardware maintenance program involves performing regular checks and repairs on the physical components of a system or network, such as disks, memory, CPU, power supply, etc., to ensure their proper functioning and performance. A hardware maintenance program can prevent or reduce hardware failures, which can cause data loss, corruption, or interruption for the system or network and its users. Increasing the availability of computers is not a benefit of a security awareness training program, but rather a benefit of a backup and recovery program. A backup and recovery program involves creating and restoring copies of data or systems in case of data loss, corruption, or disaster. A backup and recovery program can increase the availability of computers by ensuring that users can access their data or systems from alternative sources or locations in case of an emergency. Advancing end users' technical skills is not a benefit of a security awareness training program, but rather a benefit of a technical training program. A technical training program involves teaching users how to use various technologies or applications effectively and efficiently. A technical training program can advance end users' technical skills by increasing their knowledge, competence, and productivity with the technologies or applications they use. Creating IT security opportunities for end users is not a benefit of a security awareness training program, but rather a benefit of a career development program. A career development program involves providing users with guidance and resources to help them achieve their professional goals and aspirations. A career development program can create IT security opportunities for end users by exposing them to different IT security roles, paths, or certifications that they can pursue or obtain. References: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 7: Security Concepts

Within a database, which of the following would be the best access method to use to display a subset of a table?

A.
UPDATE
A.
UPDATE
Answers
B.
DROP
B.
DROP
Answers
C.
SELECT
C.
SELECT
Answers
D.
INSERT
D.
INSERT
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The SELECT statement is used to query a database and retrieve a subset of data that matches the specified criteria. For example, SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE City = 'London' will return all the records from the Customers table where the City column is equal to 'London'. The SELECT statement can also be used to join multiple tables, perform calculations, sort and group data, and apply filters and functions. The SELECT statement is one of the most commonly used SQL commands and is essential for manipulating and analyzing data in a database.

Which of the following best explains the reason for password expiration?

A.
To disable unused user IDs
A.
To disable unused user IDs
Answers
B.
To invalidate any compromised passwords
B.
To invalidate any compromised passwords
Answers
C.
To discourage writing down passwords
C.
To discourage writing down passwords
Answers
D.
To enforce new password complexity rules
D.
To enforce new password complexity rules
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The best explanation for password expiration is to invalidate any compromised passwords. Password expiration is a security policy that requires users to change their passwords after a certain period of time, such as every 90 days. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access if an attacker obtains the user's password through phishing, hacking, or other means. If the user changes their password regularly, the old password becomes useless for the attacker. Password expiration does not necessarily disable unused user IDs, as the user may still be able to log in with their new password.

Password expiration does not discourage writing down passwords, as some users may still do so to remember their new passwords. Password expiration does not enforce new password complexity rules, as those rules apply to any password change regardless of expiration. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals and Security Concepts, page 181

A new device has been installed on a wired network and can be accessed via the LAN but cannot be accessed remotely.

Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A.
Firewall settings
A.
Firewall settings
Answers
B.
Improper switch configuration
B.
Improper switch configuration
Answers
C.
Incorrect IP address
C.
Incorrect IP address
Answers
D.
Misconfigured access point
D.
Misconfigured access point
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The most likely cause of the device being accessible via the LAN but not remotely is firewall settings.

A firewall is a software or hardware device that filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on rules and policies. A firewall can block or allow traffic based on factors such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, and applications. If the firewall settings are too restrictive or misconfigured, they may prevent remote access to the device from outside the LAN. Improper switch configuration is unlikely to cause this issue, as switches are devices that forward packets within the same network segment based on MAC addresses. Switches do not block or filter traffic based on IP addresses or ports. Incorrect IP address is unlikely to cause this issue either, as an incorrect IP address would prevent the device from communicating with any other device on the network, not just remotely. Misconfigured access point is also unlikely to cause this issue, as access points are devices that provide wireless connectivity to the network. If the device is connected via a wired network, the access point is irrelevant. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 3: Infrastructure, page 95

Which of the following is an example of utilizing a personalized code for continuous personal access to a software product?

A.
Site licensing
A.
Site licensing
Answers
B.
Open-source licensing
B.
Open-source licensing
Answers
C.
Product key licensing
C.
Product key licensing
Answers
D.
Single-use licensing
D.
Single-use licensing
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Product key licensing is an example of utilizing a personalized code for continuous personal access to a software product. A product key is a unique alphanumeric code that is required to activate or register a software product, such as an operating system or an application. A product key ensures that the user has a legitimate copy of the software and prevents unauthorized use or distribution.

Site licensing is a type of licensing that allows an organization to install and use a software product on multiple devices within a specific location, such as a school or a company. Open-source licensing is a type of licensing that allows anyone to access, modify, and distribute the source code of a software product, such as Linux or Apache. Single-use licensing is a type of licensing that allows only one installation and use of a software product, such as a game or an antivirus program. References: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals and Security Concepts, page 175

Which of the following is most appropriate to list on a social media site about an employer?

A.
Work email
A.
Work email
Answers
B.
Job title
B.
Job title
Answers
C.
Hire date
C.
Hire date
Answers
D.
Customers served
D.
Customers served
Answers
E.
Contract
E.
Contract
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A system usage agreement is a document that defines the rules and expectations for using a company's IT resources, such as computers, networks, intranets, software, and data. A system usage agreement typically covers topics such as acceptable use, security, privacy, monitoring, ownership, and consequences of violations. A system usage agreement helps to protect the company's assets, reputation, and legal compliance, as well as the users' rights and responsibilities. Privacy expectations on a company intranet should be limited to what is stated in the system usage agreement, as the company has the right and the duty to monitor and control the intranet for business purposes. Users should not assume that their activities on the intranet are private or confidential, unless the system usage agreement explicitly guarantees such privacy. The other options, such as precedents, HR policy, and word of mouth, are not reliable or consistent sources of privacy expectations, as they may vary, change, or conflict with the system usage agreement or the law.Reference:CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Certification Guide, page 100;10 Intranet Best Practices for a Successful Intranet in 2021, point 7.

Which of the following interfaces is best for viewing database performance information?

A.
Direct
A.
Direct
Answers
B.
Programmatic
B.
Programmatic
Answers
C.
Query
C.
Query
Answers
D.
Utility
D.
Utility
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A utility interface is a type of interface that provides tools and features for managing, monitoring, and optimizing a database system. A utility interface can help users view database performance information, such as resource usage, query execution time, error logs, backup status, and optimization suggestions. A utility interface can also help users perform tasks such as backup, restore, repair, export, import, and migrate data. A utility interface is best suited for viewing database performance information, because it can provide a comprehensive and graphical overview of the database system's health and efficiency.

Some examples of utility interfaces for databases are:

MySQL Workbench1: A GUI tool for MySQL that provides data modeling, SQL development, server administration, backup and migration, and performance tuning features.

Oracle Enterprise Manager: A web-based tool for Oracle that provides database management, cloud control, application performance management, and data warehouse management features.

Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio: A GUI tool for SQL Server that provides database design, development, administration, analysis, and reporting features.

The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 5: Database Fundamentals, pages 5-15 to 5-16.

CompTIA IT Fundamentals Certification Training, Module 5: Database Fundamentals, Lesson 3: Methods Used to Interface with Databases.

Interfaces in DBMS

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