IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 10
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Question 91

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?
1. Components of the organization's strategic plan.
2. Inputs from senior management and the board.
3. Views of competitors and business associates.
4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.
Explanation:
When determining the audit universe, the CAE should consider components of the organization's strategic plan (Option 1), inputs from senior management and the board (Option 2), and results of exit interviews with departing employees (Option 4). These factors provide a comprehensive understanding of the organization's objectives, risks, and areas needing attention. Views of competitors and business associates (Option 3) are not typically a direct consideration for the audit universe, as the focus is primarily on internal factors and direct stakeholder inputs.
Reference:
IIA Standard 2010: Planning.
IIA Practice Guide on Developing the Audit Plan.
Question 92

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?
Explanation:
When selecting an external service provider, the CAE must ensure that the provider possesses the necessary knowledge, skills, and competencies relevant to the specific type of work being reviewed. This is best demonstrated by the provider's experience in the relevant field (Option D). The other options, such as financial interest (Option A), prior relationships (Option B), and compensation (Option C), are considerations for assessing potential conflicts of interest or independence but are not primary criteria for evaluating technical competency.
Reference:
IIA Standard 1210: Proficiency.
IIA Practice Guide on External Service Provider Arrangements.
Question 93

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization's board?
1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.
2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.
3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.
4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.
Explanation:
Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing (Option 1) and negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages (Option 4) represent significant ethical risks if exhibited by an organization's board. These actions could indicate attempts to influence or undermine the audit process and the fair handling of ethical issues, leading to potential conflicts of interest and compromising the integrity of the organization's governance processes. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches (Option 2) and authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product (Option 3) are appropriate and responsible board actions that do not pose ethical risks.
Reference:
IIA Standard 1110: Organizational Independence.
IIA Code of Ethics.
Question 94

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?
1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.
2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.
3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.
Question 95

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?
Explanation:
The balanced scorecard, introduced by Robert Kaplan and David Norton, includes four main components that provide a comprehensive view of an organization's performance. These components are:
Financial Measures -- to track financial success and shareholder value.
Learning and Growth -- to foster an environment of continuous improvement and innovation.
Customers -- to measure customer satisfaction and market share goals.
Internal Processes -- to ensure that critical operations and business processes are running efficiently. These elements together help an organization balance short-term objectives with long-term goals.
Reference:
Kaplan, R.S., & Norton, D.P. (1996). The Balanced Scorecard: Translating Strategy into Action.
Question 96

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?
Explanation:
Control Self-Assessment (CSA) is a process through which employees at various levels of an organization can participate in assessing the effectiveness of risk management and control processes. The direct benefits of CSA include allowing process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improvements for control deficiencies (Option B), improving the control environment (Option C), and increasing control consciousness (Option D). However, allowing management to have input into the audit plan (Option A) is not a direct benefit of CSA. This involvement is more related to audit planning and risk assessment rather than the CSA process itself.
Reference:
The IIA's Practice Guide on Control Self-Assessment.
Question 97

An internal auditor is conducting a financial audit. Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate when existing internal controls are weak?
Explanation:
When internal controls are weak, it is important for the auditor to rely less on the internal controls and instead perform more substantive testing. Detail testing involves examining a larger number of individual transactions or balances to gather sufficient evidence about the accuracy and completeness of financial records. This method is appropriate because it does not rely on the effectiveness of internal controls, which are known to be weak in this scenario.
Reference:
The IIA's Standards and Practice Advisories, specifically focusing on audit procedures and responses to weak internal controls.
Question 98

A draft internal audit report that cites deficient conditions generally should be reviewed with which of the following groups?
1. The client manager and her superior.
2. Anyone who may object to the report's validity.
3. Anyone required to take action.
4. The same individuals who receive the final report.
Explanation:
A draft internal audit report citing deficient conditions should be reviewed with relevant stakeholders to ensure accuracy, address concerns, and plan corrective actions. This includes the client manager and her superior (Option 1) to inform them of the findings and obtain their perspective. It should also be reviewed with anyone who may object to the report's validity (Option 2) to address potential disagreements or misunderstandings early in the process. Finally, it should include anyone required to take action (Option 3) so they are aware of their responsibilities and can begin planning remediation efforts. While it may be beneficial to review with those who receive the final report (Option 4), it is not essential for the draft stage.
Reference:
The IIA's International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards), Standard 2440 - Disseminating Results.
Question 99

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?
1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.
2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.
3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.
4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.
Explanation:
When interviewing a fraud suspect, it is important to gather both subjective and objective information (Option 1). Subjective information can include opinions or perspectives, which may provide insights into motivations or behaviors, while objective information consists of factual data. The interviewer typically begins with open-ended questions (Option 3) to allow the suspect to provide information freely and without leading them to specific answers. The primary objective is to gather information rather than to obtain a written confession (Option 2), and video recordings, while beneficial in certain cases, are not always used and thus not a standard requirement (Option 4).
Reference:
The IIA's Practice Guide on Conducting Internal Audits in Conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards).
The IIA's Practice Guide on Fraud Auditing and Investigation.
Question 100

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is false regarding a review of the controls in place to prevent fraud?
Explanation:
According to IIA guidance, the focus of a review of controls to prevent fraud should be on the effectiveness rather than the efficiency of the controls. Effectiveness pertains to whether the controls adequately mitigate fraud risks and prevent fraudulent activities, while efficiency focuses on the performance and cost-effectiveness of the controls, which is not the primary concern in preventing fraud. This makes statement A false in the context of IIA guidance.
IIA Standards: 1220.A1 - Due Professional Care
IIA Practice Guide: Fraud Prevention and Detection in an Automated World
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