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Which of the following describes the understanding between a company and a client about what will be provided and the accepted time needed to provide the company with the resources?

A.
SLA
A.
SLA
Answers
B.
MOU
B.
MOU
Answers
C.
MOA
C.
MOA
Answers
D.
BPA
D.
BPA
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a formal document between a service provider and a client that defines the expected level of service, including what resources will be provided and the agreed-upon time frames. It typically includes metrics to evaluate performance, uptime guarantees, and response times.

MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) and MOA (Memorandum of Agreement) are less formal and may not specify the exact level of service.

BPA (Business Partners Agreement) focuses more on the long-term relationship between partners.

Which of the following describes an executive team that is meeting in a board room and testing the company's incident response plan?

A.
Continuity of operations
A.
Continuity of operations
Answers
B.
Capacity planning
B.
Capacity planning
Answers
C.
Tabletop exercise
C.
Tabletop exercise
Answers
D.
Parallel processing
D.
Parallel processing
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A tabletop exercise involves the executive team or key stakeholders discussing and testing the company's incident response plan in a simulated environment. These exercises are low-stress, discussion-based, and help to validate the plan's effectiveness by walking through different scenarios without disrupting actual operations. It is an essential part of testing business continuity and incident response strategies.

Continuity of operations refers to the ability of an organization to continue functioning during and after a disaster but doesn't specifically involve simulations like tabletop exercises.

Capacity planning is related to ensuring the infrastructure can handle growth, not incident response testing.

Parallel processing refers to running multiple processes simultaneously, which is unrelated to testing an incident response plan.

Which of the following methods would most likely be used to identify legacy systems?

A.
Bug bounty program
A.
Bug bounty program
Answers
B.
Vulnerability scan
B.
Vulnerability scan
Answers
C.
Package monitoring
C.
Package monitoring
Answers
D.
Dynamic analysis
D.
Dynamic analysis
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A vulnerability scan is the most likely method to identify legacy systems. These scans assess an organization's network and systems for known vulnerabilities, including outdated or unsupported software (i.e., legacy systems) that may pose a security risk. The scan results can highlight systems that are no longer receiving updates, helping IT teams address these risks.

Bug bounty programs are used to incentivize external researchers to find security flaws, but they are less effective at identifying legacy systems.

Package monitoring tracks installed software packages for updates or issues but is not as comprehensive for identifying legacy systems.

Dynamic analysis is typically used for testing applications during runtime to find vulnerabilities, but not for identifying legacy systems.

Which of the following considerations is the most important for an organization to evaluate as it establishes and maintains a data privacy program?

A.
Reporting structure for the data privacy officer
A.
Reporting structure for the data privacy officer
Answers
B.
Request process for data subject access
B.
Request process for data subject access
Answers
C.
Role as controller or processor
C.
Role as controller or processor
Answers
D.
Physical location of the company
D.
Physical location of the company
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The most important consideration when establishing a data privacy program is defining the organization's role as a controller or processor. These roles, as outlined in privacy regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), determine the responsibilities regarding the handling of personal data. A controller is responsible for determining the purpose and means of data processing, while a processor acts on behalf of the controller. This distinction is crucial for compliance with data privacy laws.

Reporting structure for the data privacy officer is important, but it is a secondary consideration compared to legal roles.

Request process for data subject access is essential for compliance but still depends on the organization's role as controller or processor.

Physical location of the company can affect jurisdiction, but the role as controller or processor has a broader and more immediate impact.

Client files can only be accessed by employees who need to know the information and have specified roles in the company. Which of the following best describes this security concept?

A.
Availability
A.
Availability
Answers
B.
Confidentiality
B.
Confidentiality
Answers
C.
Integrity
C.
Integrity
Answers
D.
Non-repudiation
D.
Non-repudiation
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The scenario described, where client files are only accessible to employees who 'need to know' the information, reflects the concept of confidentiality. Confidentiality ensures that sensitive information is only accessible to those who are authorized to view it, preventing unauthorized access.

Availability ensures that data is accessible when needed but doesn't focus on restricting access.

Integrity ensures that data remains accurate and unaltered but doesn't pertain to access control.

Non-repudiation ensures that actions cannot be denied after they are performed, but this concept is unrelated to access control.

A user would like to install software and features that are not available with a smartphone's default software. Which of the following would allow the user to install unauthorized software and enable new features?

A.
SOU
A.
SOU
Answers
B.
Cross-site scripting
B.
Cross-site scripting
Answers
C.
Jailbreaking
C.
Jailbreaking
Answers
D.
Side loading
D.
Side loading
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Jailbreaking is the process of removing restrictions imposed by the manufacturer on a smartphone, allowing the user to install unauthorized software and features not available through official app stores. This action typically voids the warranty and can introduce security risks by bypassing built-in protections.

SOU (Statement of Understanding) is not related to modifying devices.

Cross-site scripting is a web-based attack technique, unrelated to smartphone software.

Side loading refers to installing apps from unofficial sources but without necessarily removing built-in restrictions like jailbreaking does.

A company is currently utilizing usernames and passwords, and it wants to integrate an MFA method that is seamless, can Integrate easily into a user's workflow, and can utilize employee-owned devices. Which of the following will meet these requirements?

A.
Push notifications
A.
Push notifications
Answers
B.
Phone call
B.
Phone call
Answers
C.
Smart card
C.
Smart card
Answers
D.
Offline backup codes
D.
Offline backup codes
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Push notifications offer a seamless and user-friendly method of multi-factor authentication (MFA) that can easily integrate into a user's workflow. This method leverages employee-owned devices, like smartphones, to approve authentication requests through a push notification. It's convenient, quick, and doesn't require the user to input additional codes, making it a preferred choice for seamless integration with existing workflows.

Reference =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management.

A financial institution would like to store its customer data m the cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution Is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would best meet the requirement?

A.
Asymmetric
A.
Asymmetric
Answers
B.
Symmetric
B.
Symmetric
Answers
C.
Homomorphic
C.
Homomorphic
Answers
D.
Ephemeral
D.
Ephemeral
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Homomorphic encryption allows data to be encrypted and manipulated without needing to decrypt it first. This cryptographic technique would allow the financial institution to store customer data securely in the cloud while still permitting operations like searching and calculations to be performed on the encrypted data. This ensures that the cloud service provider cannot decipher the sensitive data, meeting the institution's security requirements.

Reference =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptographic Techniques.

The Chief Information Security Officer of an organization needs to ensure recovery from ransomware would likely occur within the organization's agreed-upon RPOs end RTOs. Which of the following backup scenarios would best ensure recovery?

A.
Hourly differential backups stored on a local SAN array
A.
Hourly differential backups stored on a local SAN array
Answers
B.
Dally full backups stored on premises in magnetic offline media
B.
Dally full backups stored on premises in magnetic offline media
Answers
C.
Daly differential backups maintained by a third-party cloud provider
C.
Daly differential backups maintained by a third-party cloud provider
Answers
D.
Weekly full backups with daily incremental stored on a NAS drive
D.
Weekly full backups with daily incremental stored on a NAS drive
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A backup strategy that combines weekly full backups with daily incremental backups stored on a NAS (Network Attached Storage) drive is likely to meet an organization's Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs) and Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs). This approach ensures that recent data is regularly backed up and that recovery can be done efficiently, without significant data loss or lengthy downtime.

Reference =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Disaster Recovery and Backup Strategies.

Which of the following best describe a penetration test that resembles an actual external attach?

A.
Known environment
A.
Known environment
Answers
B.
Partially known environment
B.
Partially known environment
Answers
C.
Bug bounty
C.
Bug bounty
Answers
D.
Unknown environment
D.
Unknown environment
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

An unknown environment in penetration testing, also known as a black-box test, simulates an actual external attack where the tester has no prior knowledge of the system. This type of penetration test is designed to mimic real-world attack scenarios, where an attacker has little to no information about the target environment. The tester must rely on various reconnaissance and attack techniques to uncover vulnerabilities, much like a real-world attacker would. This approach helps organizations understand their security posture from an external perspective, providing insights into how their defenses would hold up against a true outsider threat.

Reference =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course highlights the importance of understanding different penetration testing environments, including black-box testing, which aligns with the 'unknown environment' in the provided answer.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: The guide details penetration testing methodologies, including black-box testing, which is crucial for simulating real external attacks.

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