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A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware?

A.
A thorough analysis of the supply chain
A.
A thorough analysis of the supply chain
Answers
B.
A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
B.
A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
Answers
C.
A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
C.
A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
Answers
D.
An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors
D.
An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM).It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12.Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps:

Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers

Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers

Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components

Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security

Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle

Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agenciesReference=1:Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco,2:What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices,3:Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It

Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?

A.
Rules of engagement
A.
Rules of engagement
Answers
B.
Supply chain analysis
B.
Supply chain analysis
Answers
C.
Right to audit clause
C.
Right to audit clause
Answers
D.
Due diligence
D.
Due diligence
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:

The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.

The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.

The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.

The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.

The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.

The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.

The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.

Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.

Reference= https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engagement/

https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing

A penetration tester begins an engagement by performing port and service scans against the client environment according to the rules of engagement. Which of the following reconnaissance types is the tester performing?

A.
Active
A.
Active
Answers
B.
Passive
B.
Passive
Answers
C.
Defensive
C.
Defensive
Answers
D.
Offensive
D.
Offensive
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Active reconnaissance is a type of reconnaissance that involves sending packets or requests to a target and analyzing the responses. Active reconnaissance can reveal information such as open ports, services, operating systems, and vulnerabilities. However, active reconnaissance is also more likely to be detected by the target or its security devices, such as firewalls or intrusion detection systems. Port and service scans are examples of active reconnaissance techniques, as they involve probing the target for specific information.

Reference=CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1: Given a scenario, conduct reconnaissance using appropriate techniques and tools.CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Reconnaissance and Intelligence Gathering, page 47.CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 1.

Which of the following is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure?

A.
IRP
A.
IRP
Answers
B.
DRP
B.
DRP
Answers
C.
RPO
C.
RPO
Answers
D.
SDLC
D.
SDLC
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. A DRP typically includes the following elements:

A risk assessment that identifies the potential threats and impacts to the organization's critical assets and processes.

A business impact analysis that prioritizes the recovery of the most essential functions and data.

A recovery strategy that defines the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team, the resources and tools needed, and the steps to follow to restore the system.

A testing and maintenance plan that ensures the DRP is updated and validated regularly. A DRP is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure, as it provides a clear and structured framework for recovering from a disaster and minimizing the downtime and data loss.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325.

Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer's approved software repository?

A.
Jailbreaking
A.
Jailbreaking
Answers
B.
Memory injection
B.
Memory injection
Answers
C.
Resource reuse
C.
Resource reuse
Answers
D.
Side loading
D.
Side loading
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer's approved software repository. This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities, such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices.Reference=Sideloading - CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface Technical Training,Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications,Load Balancers -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 -- 2.1,CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide.

A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:

Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?

A.
Password spraying
A.
Password spraying
Answers
B.
Account forgery
B.
Account forgery
Answers
C.
Pass-t he-hash
C.
Pass-t he-hash
Answers
D.
Brute-force
D.
Brute-force
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Password spraying is a type of brute force attack that tries common passwords across several accounts to find a match. It is a mass trial-and-error approach that can bypass account lockout protocols. It can give hackers access to personal or business accounts and information.It is not a targeted attack, but a high-volume attack tactic that uses a dictionary or a list of popular or weak passwords12.

The logs show that the attacker is using the same password ('password123') to attempt to log in to different accounts ('admin', 'user1', 'user2', etc.) on the same web server. This is a typical pattern of password spraying, as the attacker is hoping that at least one of the accounts has a weak password that matches the one they are trying.The attacker is also using a tool called Hydra, which is one of the most popular brute force tools, often used in cracking passwords for network authentication3.

Account forgery is not the correct answer, because it involves creating fake accounts or credentials to impersonate legitimate users or entities. There is no evidence of account forgery in the logs, as the attacker is not creating any new accounts or using forged credentials.

Pass-the-hash is not the correct answer, because it involves stealing a hashed user credential and using it to create a new authenticated session on the same network.Pass-the-hash does not require the attacker to know or crack the password, as they use the stored version of the password to initiate a new session4. The logs show that the attacker is using plain text passwords, not hashes, to try to log in to the web server.

Brute-force is not the correct answer, because it is a broader term that encompasses different types of attacks that involve trying different variations of symbols or words until the correct password is found.Password spraying is a specific type of brute force attack that uses a single common password against multiple accounts5.The logs show that the attacker is using password spraying, not brute force in general, to try to gain access to the web server.Reference=1:Password spraying: An overview of password spraying attacks ... - Norton,2:Security: Credential Stuffing vs. Password Spraying - Baeldung,3:Brute Force Attack: A definition + 6 types to know | Norton,4:What is a Pass-the-Hash Attack? - CrowdStrike,5:What is a Brute Force Attack? | Definition, Types & How It Works - Fortinet

An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?

A.
Secured zones
A.
Secured zones
Answers
B.
Subject role
B.
Subject role
Answers
C.
Adaptive identity
C.
Adaptive identity
Answers
D.
Threat scope reduction
D.
Threat scope reduction
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network.

One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat.

The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules.

Reference= https://bing.com/search?q=Zero+Trust+data+plane

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/deploy/data

An engineer needs to find a solution that creates an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. Which of the following would be the best solution?

A.
RDP server
A.
RDP server
Answers
B.
Jump server
B.
Jump server
Answers
C.
Proxy server
C.
Proxy server
Answers
D.
Hypervisor
D.
Hypervisor
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

= A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target system. A jump server can provide an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. A user can connect to the jump server using a secure protocol, such as SSH, and then access the target system from the jump server. This way, the target system is isolated from the external network and only accessible through the jump server. A jump server can also enforce security policies, such as authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing, on the user's connection. A jump server is also known as a bastion host or a jump box.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 3: Network Architecture and Design, page 101.Other Network Appliances -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3, Video 3:03.CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 2.

A company's web filter is configured to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. Which of the following search strings should an analyst employ to prohibit access to non-encrypted websites?

A.
encryption=off\
A.
encryption=off\
Answers
B.
http://
B.
http://
Answers
C.
www.*.com
C.
www.*.com
Answers
D.
:443
D.
:443
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A web filter is a device or software that can monitor, block, or allow web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. One of the common methods of web filtering is to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. For example, a web filter can block access to websites that contain the words ''gambling'', ''porn'', or ''malware'' in their URLs. A URL is a uniform resource locator that identifies the location and protocol of a web resource. A URL typically consists of the following components:protocol://domain:port/path?query#fragment. The protocol specifies the communication method used to access the web resource, such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, or SMTP. The domain is the name of the web server that hosts the web resource, such as www.google.com or www.bing.com. The port is an optional number that identifies the specific service or application running on the web server, such as 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS. The path is the specific folder or file name of the web resource, such as /index.html or /images/logo.png. The query is an optional string that contains additional information or parameters for the web resource, such as ?q=security or ?lang=en. The fragment is an optional string that identifies a specific part or section of the web resource, such as #introduction or #summary.

To prohibit access to non-encrypted websites, an analyst should employ a search string that matches the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic, which is HTTP. HTTP stands for hypertext transfer protocol, and it is a standard protocol for transferring data between web servers and web browsers. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption or security for the data, which means that anyone who intercepts the web traffic can read or modify the data. Therefore, non-encrypted websites are vulnerable to eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. To access a non-encrypted website, the URL usually starts with http://, followed by the domain name and optionally the port number. For example, http://www.example.com or http://www.example.com:80. By scanning the URL for the string http://, the web filter can identify and block non-encrypted websites.

The other options are not correct because they do not match the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic. Encryption=off is a possible query string that indicates the encryption status of the web resource, but it is not a standard or mandatory parameter. Https:// is the protocol of encrypted web traffic, which uses hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) to provide encryption and security for the data. Www.*.com is a possible domain name that matches any website that starts with www and ends with .com, but it does not specify the protocol. :443 is the port number of HTTPS, which is the protocol of encrypted web traffic.Reference=CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Securing Networks, page 69.Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 2.1: Network Devices and Technologies, video: Web Filter (5:16).

During a security incident, the security operations team identified sustained network traffic from a malicious IP address:

10.1.4.9. A security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address from accessing the organization's network. Which of the following fulfills this request?

A.
access-list inbound deny ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
A.
access-list inbound deny ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
Answers
B.
access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
B.
access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
Answers
C.
access-list inbound permit ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
C.
access-list inbound permit ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
Answers
D.
access-list inbound permit ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
D.
access-list inbound permit ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

A firewall rule is a set of criteria that determines whether to allow or deny a packet to pass through the firewall. A firewall rule consists of several elements, such as the action, the protocol, the source address, the destination address, and the port number. The syntax of a firewall rule may vary depending on the type and vendor of the firewall, but the basic logic is the same. In this question, the security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address 10.1.4.9 from accessing the organization's network. This means that the action should be deny, the protocol should be any (or ig for IP), the source address should be 10.1.4.9/32 (which means a single IP address), the destination address should be 0.0.0.0/0 (which means any IP address), and the port number should be any. Therefore, the correct firewall rule is:

access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0

This rule will match any packet that has the source IP address of 10.1.4.9 and drop it. The other options are incorrect because they either have the wrong action, the wrong source address, or the wrong destination address. For example, option A has the source and destination addresses reversed, which means that it will block any packet that has the destination IP address of 10.1.4.9, which is not the intended goal. Option C has the wrong action, which is permit, which means that it will allow the packet to pass through the firewall, which is also not the intended goal. Option D has the same problem as option A, with the source and destination addresses reversed.

Reference=Firewall Rules -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 1.2,Firewalls -- SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3,Firewalls -- CompTIA Security+ SY0-501,Understanding Firewall Rules -- CompTIA Network+ N10-005: 5.5,Configuring Windows Firewall -- CompTIA A+ 220-1102 -- 1.6.

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