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Cisco 200-201 Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 23

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What is a scareware attack?

A.

using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials

A.

using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials

Answers
B.

overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic

B.

overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic

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C.

gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it

C.

gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it

Answers
D.

inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors

D.

inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Scareware is a type of malware attack that tricks users into believing their computer is infected with a virus, prompting them to download and pay for fake antivirus software. The attack often uses popup windows with flashing colors (D) to create a sense of urgency and scare the user into taking immediate action.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which tool was used to generate this data?

A.

NetFlow

A.

NetFlow

Answers
B.

dnstools

B.

dnstools

Answers
C.

firewall

C.

firewall

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D.

tcpdump

D.

tcpdump

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Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The data shown in the exhibit is typical of what can be captured and displayed using tcpdump, a command-line packet analyzer that allows users to display TCP/IP and other packets being transmitted or received over a network.

Which process represents the application-level allow list?

A.

allowing everything and denying specific applications protocols

A.

allowing everything and denying specific applications protocols

Answers
B.

allowing everything and denying specific executable files

B.

allowing everything and denying specific executable files

Answers
C.

allowing specific format files and deny executable files

C.

allowing specific format files and deny executable files

Answers
D.

allowing specific files and deny everything else

D.

allowing specific files and deny everything else

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Application-level allow list refers to the practice of specifying an index of approved applications that are permitted to be executed in a system environment or network, which means only specific files are allowed while everything else is denied by default, enhancing security.

Which type of verification consists of using tools to compute the message digest of the original and copied data, then comparing the similarity of the digests?

A.

evidence collection order

A.

evidence collection order

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B.

data integrity

B.

data integrity

Answers
C.

data preservation

C.

data preservation

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D.

volatile data collection

D.

volatile data collection

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Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Data integrity verification involves using tools to compute the message digest of data. A message digest is a cryptographic hash function containing a string of digits created by a one-way hashing formula. This digest, which serves as a unique identifier, can be used to verify the integrity of copied data by comparing it to the original data's digest. If the digests match, it means the data has not been altered, ensuring its integrity.

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

A.

TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter integrity and provides full duplex network.

A.

TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter integrity and provides full duplex network.

Answers
B.

SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

B.

SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

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C.

TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

C.

TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

Answers
D.

SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

D.

SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The main difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN) lies in how they handle network traffic for analysis purposes. TAPS, or Test Access Points, are hardware devices that create a copy of the traffic between two network points without altering the data. This means TAPS can transmit both send and receive data streams simultaneously on separate dedicated channels, ensuring all data, including physical layer errors, is received by the monitoring or security device in real-time. On the other hand, SPAN, or Switch Port Analyzer, is a feature that duplicates network packets seen on one port to another port for analysis. However, SPAN ports can filter out physical layer errors, which may limit the types of analyses that can be performed as some errors will not be represented in the mirrored traffic.

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

A.

threat intelligence

A.

threat intelligence

Answers
B.

risk scores

B.

risk scores

Answers
C.

vendor suggestions

C.

vendor suggestions

Answers
D.

vulnerability exposure

D.

vulnerability exposure

Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Threat intelligence is crucial for organizations to understand the threats they are currently facing. It involves collecting, evaluating, and disseminating information about current or potential attacks that could affect an organization. This intelligence can help organizations prioritize their security measures based on the likelihood and potential impact of different threats. By using threat intelligence, organizations can be more proactive in their defense strategies and respond more effectively to cyber threats.

What is threat hunting?

A.

Managing a vulnerability assessment report to mitigate potential threats.

A.

Managing a vulnerability assessment report to mitigate potential threats.

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B.

Focusing on proactively detecting possible signs of intrusion and compromise.

B.

Focusing on proactively detecting possible signs of intrusion and compromise.

Answers
C.

Pursuing competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their system to acquire intelligence data.

C.

Pursuing competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their system to acquire intelligence data.

Answers
D.

Attempting to deliberately disrupt servers by altering their availability

D.

Attempting to deliberately disrupt servers by altering their availability

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Threat hunting is a proactive cybersecurity technique that involves searching for indicators of compromise or signs of intrusion within an organization's network or systems. Unlike automated detection systems, threat hunting is typically carried out by security analysts who use their knowledge and intuition to identify subtle, unusual patterns that may indicate a security breach. The goal of threat hunting is to identify and mitigate threats before they can cause significant damage.

An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external penmeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data. Which two types of data must be identified'? (Choose two.)

A.

SOX

A.

SOX

Answers
B.

PII

B.

PII

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C.

PHI

C.

PHI

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D.

PCI

D.

PCI

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E.

copyright

E.

copyright

Answers
Suggested answer: B, C

Explanation:

Protected data refers to any information that can be used on its own or with other information to identify, contact, or locate a single person, or to identify an individual in context. In the scenario described, the engineer must identify data that is considered protected under privacy laws and regulations. Personal Identifiable Information (PII) and Protected Health Information (PHI) are two types of data that are considered protected. PII includes any data that could potentially identify a specific individual, such as addresses and gender. PHI refers to any information about health status, provision of health care, or payment for health care that can be linked to an individual. This is what makes both PII and PHI crucial to be identified and protected in compliance with data protection regulations.

What describes the impact of false-positive alerts compared to false-negative alerts?

A.

A false negative is alerting for an XSS attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an XSS attack happened A false positive is when an XSS attack happens and no alert is raised

A.

A false negative is alerting for an XSS attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an XSS attack happened A false positive is when an XSS attack happens and no alert is raised

Answers
B.

A false negative is a legitimate attack triggering a brute-force alert. An engineer investigates the alert and finds out someone intended to break into the system A false positive is when no alert and no attack is occurring

B.

A false negative is a legitimate attack triggering a brute-force alert. An engineer investigates the alert and finds out someone intended to break into the system A false positive is when no alert and no attack is occurring

Answers
C.

A false positive is an event alerting for a brute-force attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that a legitimate user entered the wrong credential several times A false negative is when a threat actor tries to brute-force attack a system and no alert is raised.

C.

A false positive is an event alerting for a brute-force attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that a legitimate user entered the wrong credential several times A false negative is when a threat actor tries to brute-force attack a system and no alert is raised.

Answers
D.

A false positive is an event alerting for an SQL injection attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an attack attempt was blocked by IPS A false negative is when the attack gets detected but succeeds and results in a breach.

D.

A false positive is an event alerting for an SQL injection attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an attack attempt was blocked by IPS A false negative is when the attack gets detected but succeeds and results in a breach.

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

False positives and false negatives are terms used to describe the accuracy of security alerts. A false positive occurs when a security system incorrectly identifies benign activity as malicious, leading to unnecessary investigation and potential disruption of legitimate activities. Conversely, a false negative happens when a security system fails to detect actual malicious activity, allowing the attackers to proceed undetected. The impact of false positives is generally wasted time and resources investigating non-issues, while the impact of false negatives can be much more severe, potentially leading to undetected breaches and significant damage.

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer received a ticket about a slowed-down web application. The engineer runs the #netstat -an command. How must the engineer interpret the results?

A.

The web application is receiving a common, legitimate traffic

A.

The web application is receiving a common, legitimate traffic

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B.

The engineer must gather more data.

B.

The engineer must gather more data.

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C.

The web application server is under a denial-of-service attack.

C.

The web application server is under a denial-of-service attack.

Answers
D.

The server is under a man-in-the-middle attack between the web application and its database

D.

The server is under a man-in-the-middle attack between the web application and its database

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The#netstat -ancommand output typically displays a list of all open ports and associated connections. If the web application is slowed down, the engineer would look for unusual patterns such as an excessive number of connections to the web server which could indicate a denial-of-service attack. However, without specific details from the#netstat -anoutput, it's not possible to determine the exact cause of the issue. Therefore, the engineer would need to gather more data, possibly including checking server logs, resource usage, and network traffic patterns to diagnose the problem accurately.

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