Isaca CISA Practice Test - Questions Answers, Page 100

The most important consideration for patching mission critical business application servers against known vulnerabilities is A. Patches are implemented in a test environment prior to rollout into production. This is because patching mission critical business application servers involves a high level of risk and complexity, and requires careful planning and testing before applying the patches to the live environment.Patches may introduce new bugs, errors, or conflicts that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the application servers, and cause system downtime, data loss, or business disruption1.Therefore, it is essential to implement patches in a test environment first, where the patches can be verified and validated for their effectiveness and compatibility, and any issues or defects can be identified and resolved before they impact the production environment2.

Validation checks are a type of data quality control that helps to ensure the integrity of data for a system interface. Validation checks verify that the data entered or transferred between systems is correct, consistent, and conforms to predefined rules or standards. Validation checks can prevent or detect errors, anomalies, or inconsistencies in the data that may affect the system's functionality, performance, or security.

Option C is correct because validation checks are a common and effective method of ensuring data integrity for a system interface. Validation checks can be performed at various stages of the data lifecycle, such as input, processing, output, or storage. Validation checks can also be applied to different types of data, such as data types, codes, ranges, formats, consistency, and uniqueness.

Option A is incorrect because system interface testing is a type of software testing that verifies the interaction between two separate systems or components of a system. System interface testing does not directly ensure the integrity of data for a system interface, but rather the functionality and reliability of the interface itself. System interface testing may use validation checks as part of its test cases, but it is not the same as validation checks.

Option B is incorrect because user acceptance testing (UAT) is a type of software testing that evaluates whether the system meets the user's expectations and requirements. UAT does not directly ensure the integrity of data for a system interface, but rather the usability and acceptability of the system from the user's perspective. UAT may use validation checks as part of its test scenarios, but it is not the same as validation checks.

Option D is incorrect because audit logs are records of events and activities that occur within a system or network. Audit logs do not directly ensure the integrity of data for a system interface, but rather provide evidence and accountability for the system's operations and security. Audit logs may use validation checks as part of their analysis or reporting, but they are not the same as validation checks.

CISA Online Review Course1, Module 5: Protection of Information Assets, Lesson 4: Data Quality Management, slide 5-6.

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)2, Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Data Quality Management, p. 281-282.

CISA Review Manual (Print Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Data Quality Management, p. 281-282.

CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database3, Question ID: QAE_CISA_722.

Data Validation - Overview, Types, Practical Examples4

Data Validity: The Best Practice for Your Business5

Validation - Data validation6

What is Data Validation?Types, Techniques, Tools7

The greatest concern with finding closed-circuit television (CCTV) systems located in a patient care area is that there are no notices indicating recording is in progress. This is because CCTV systems in healthcare settings can pose a threat to the privacy and confidentiality of patients, staff, and visitors, especially in sensitive areas where personal or medical information may be exposed.According to the government's Surveillance camera code of practice1, CCTV operators must be as transparent as possible in the use of CCTV, and inform people that they are being recorded by using clear and visible signs. The signs should also provide contact details of the CCTV operator and the purpose of the surveillance. By providing notices, CCTV operators can comply with data protection law and respect the rights and expectations of individuals.

Option B is correct because the lack of notices indicating recording is in progress is a clear violation of the Surveillance camera code of practice1, which applies to local authorities and the police, and is encouraged to be adopted by other CCTV operators in England and Wales.The code also applies to Scotland, along with the National Strategy for Public Space CCTV2.The code is intended to be used in conjunction with the guidance provided by the Information Commissioner's Office (ICO)3, which applies across the UK. The ICO states that CCTV operators must inform people that they are being recorded by using prominent signs at the entrance of the CCTV zone and reinforcing this with further signs inside the area.

Option A is incorrect because cameras not being monitored 24/7 is not the greatest concern, as it does not necessarily affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. CCTV systems may have different purposes and objectives, such as deterring or monitoring crime, enhancing security, or improving patient care. Depending on the purpose, CCTV systems may not require constant monitoring, but rather periodic review or analysis. However, CCTV operators should still ensure that they have adequate security measures to protect the CCTV systems from unauthorized access or tampering.

Option C is incorrect because the retention period for video recordings being undefined is not the greatest concern, as it does not directly affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. However, CCTV operators should still define and document their retention policy, and ensure that they do not keep video recordings for longer than necessary, unless they are needed for a specific purpose or as evidence. The retention period should be based on a clear and justifiable rationale, and comply with data protection law and industry guidelines.

Option D is incorrect because there being no backups of the videos is not the greatest concern, as it does not affect the privacy and confidentiality of individuals. However, CCTV operators should still consider having backups of their videos, especially if they are needed for a specific purpose or as evidence. Backups can help to prevent data loss or corruption due to system failures, disasters, or malicious attacks. Backups should also be stored securely and encrypted to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure.

The best course of action for the IS auditor is A. Escalate to IT management for resolution.This is because IT management is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the IT activities and functions within the organization, and ensuring that they comply with the audit findings and recommendations1. IT management can help resolve the issue of finding ownership by:

Clarifying and communicating the roles and responsibilities of each IT team, and how they relate to the finding and its remediation2.

Evaluating and assigning the finding to the most appropriate IT team, based on their expertise, authority, and availability2.

Providing guidance and support to the assigned IT team, and monitoring their progress and performance in remediating the finding2.

The most useful thing to do when planning to audit an organization's compliance with cybersecurity regulations in foreign countries is to map the different regulatory requirements to the organization's IT governance framework.This is because an IT governance framework is a roadmap that defines the methods used by an organization to implement, manage and report on IT governance within said organization1.IT governance helps align business and IT strategies using a solid and formal framework2. By mapping the different regulatory requirements to the IT governance framework, the auditor can:

Identify the commonalities and differences among the various cybersecurity regulations that apply to the organization's operations in different countries.

Assess the level of compliance and maturity of the organization's IT governance practices against each regulatory requirement.

Evaluate the risks and gaps associated with non-compliance or partial compliance with any of the regulatory requirements.

Recommend appropriate actions or improvements to enhance the organization's IT governance and cybersecurity posture.

Option D is correct because mapping the different regulatory requirements to the organization's IT governance framework is a systematic and effective way to plan and conduct an audit of compliance with cybersecurity regulations in foreign countries.

The best course of action for a security administrator who is called in the middle of the night by the on-call programmer who needs access to the live system is to give the programmer an emergency ID for temporary access and review the activity. This is because:

Requiring that a change request be completed and approved may delay the resolution of the problem and cause further damage or disruption to the system or business operations. A change request is a formal document that describes the proposed change, its rationale, impact, benefits, risks, costs, and approval process. A change request is usually required for planned or scheduled changes, not for emergency or urgent changes.

Giving the programmer read-only access to investigate the problem may not be sufficient or effective, as the programmer may need to perform actions or tests that require write or execute permissions. Read-only access means that the user can only view or copy data or files, but cannot modify or delete them.

Reviewing activity logs the following day and investigating any suspicious activity may not prevent or detect any unauthorized or malicious actions by the programmer in real time. Activity logs are records of events and actions that occur within a system or network. Activity logs can provide evidence and accountability for system activities, but they are not proactive or preventive controls.

Therefore, giving the programmer an emergency ID for temporary access and reviewing the activity is the best course of action, as it allows the programmer to access the live system and resolve the problem quickly, while also ensuring that the security administrator can monitor and verify the programmer's activity and revoke the access when it is no longer needed. An emergency ID is a temporary account that grants a user elevated privileges or access to a system or resource for a specific purpose and duration. An emergency ID should be:

Created and authorized by a security administrator or manager

Assigned to a specific user and purpose

Limited in scope and time

Logged and audited

Revoked and deleted after use

Some of the best practices for emergency access to live systems are12:

Establish clear policies and procedures for requesting, approving, granting, monitoring, reviewing, and revoking emergency access

Define criteria and scenarios for emergency access, such as severity, impact, urgency, and risk

Implement controls to prevent unauthorized or unnecessary use of emergency access, such as multifactor authentication, approval workflows, alerts, notifications, and time restrictions

Implement controls to track and audit emergency access activities, such as logging, reporting, analysis, and investigation

Implement controls to ensure accountability and responsibility for emergency access users, such as attestation, justification, documentation, and feedback

The most important factor to ensure when developing an effective security awareness program is B. Outcome metrics for the program are established.This is because outcome metrics are measures that evaluate the impact and results of the security awareness program on the behavior and performance of the users, and the security posture and objectives of the organization1. Outcome metrics can help ensure the effectiveness of the security awareness program by:

Providing feedback and evidence on whether the security awareness program is achieving its goals and expectations, such as reducing the number of incidents, improving the compliance rate, or increasing the reporting rate1.

Identifying and quantifying the strengths and weaknesses of the security awareness program, and enabling continuous improvement and optimization of the program content, delivery, and frequency1.

Demonstrating and communicating the value and return on investment of the security awareness program to the stakeholders and management, and securing their support and commitment for the program1.

The greatest concern when reviewing an IT strategic plan is B. The plan does not support relevant organizational goals.This is because an IT strategic plan should align and integrate the IT goals and objectives with the organization's overall strategy and vision, and ensure that IT supports and enables the business processes and functions1. If the IT strategic plan does not support relevant organizational goals, it may lead to:

Suboptimal or negative outcomes and value for the organization, as IT investments and initiatives may not align with the organization's priorities, needs, or expectations1.

Conflicts or inconsistencies between IT and business functions, as IT may not deliver the expected level of service, quality, or performance2.

Wasted or inefficient use of resources, as IT may spend time, money, or effort on projects or activities that are not relevant or beneficial for the organization2.

The record-locking option of a database management system (DBMS) serves to eliminate the risk of concurrent updates to a record by different users or transactions.Record locking is a technique of preventing simultaneous access to data in a database, to prevent inconsistent results1. For example, if two bank clerks try to update the same bank account for two different transactions, record locking can ensure that only one clerk can modify the record at a time, while the other has to wait until the lock is released. This way, the record will reflect both transactions correctly and avoid data corruption.

Record locking does not serve to allow database administrators (DBAs) to record the activities of users.This is a function of auditing or logging, which can track the actions performed by users on the database2. Record locking does not affect the ability of DBAs to monitor or audit user activities.

Record locking does not serve to restrict users from changing certain values within records.This is a function of access control or authorization, which can enforce rules or policies on what data users can view or modify2. Record locking does not affect the permissions or privileges of users on the database.

Record locking does not serve to allow users to lock others out of their files.This is a function of encryption or password protection, which can secure files from unauthorized access or modification3. Record locking does not affect the security or confidentiality of files on the database.

Record locking - Wikipedia1

Database security - Wikipedia2

File system permissions - Wikipedia3