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An IS auditor will be testing accounts payable controls by performing data analytics on the entire population of transactions. Which of the following is MOST important for the auditor to confirm when sourcing the population data?

A.
The data is taken directly from the system.
A.
The data is taken directly from the system.
Answers
B.
There is no privacy information in the data.
B.
There is no privacy information in the data.
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C.
The data can be obtained in a timely manner.
C.
The data can be obtained in a timely manner.
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D.
The data analysis tools have been recently updated.
D.
The data analysis tools have been recently updated.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The most important thing for the auditor to confirm when sourcing the population data for testing accounts payable controls by performing data analytics is that the data is taken directly from the system. Taking the data directly from the system can help ensure that the data is authentic, complete, and accurate, and that it has not been manipulated or modified by any intermediary sources or processes. The other options are not as important as taking the data directly from the system, as they do not affect the validity or reliability of the data. There is no privacy information in the data is a privacy concern that can help protect the confidentiality and integrity of personal or sensitive data, but it does not affect the accuracy or completeness of the data. The data can be obtained in a timely manner is a logistical concern that can help facilitate the efficiency and effectiveness of the data analytics process, but it does not affect the authenticity or accuracy of the data. The data analysis tools have been recently updated is a technical concern that can help enhance the functionality and performance of the data analytics tools, but it does not affect the validity or reliability of the data.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

Which of the following is the BEST source of information for assessing the effectiveness of IT process monitoring?

A.
Real-time audit software
A.
Real-time audit software
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B.
Performance data
B.
Performance data
Answers
C.
Quality assurance (QA) reviews
C.
Quality assurance (QA) reviews
Answers
D.
Participative management techniques
D.
Participative management techniques
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The best source of information for assessing the effectiveness of IT process monitoring is performance data. Performance data is a type of information that measures and reports on the results or outcomes of IT processes, such as availability, reliability, throughput, response time, or error rate. Performance data can help assess the effectiveness of IT process monitoring by providing quantitative and qualitative indicators of whether IT processes are meeting their objectives, standards, or expectations. The other options are not as good as performance data in assessing the effectiveness of IT process monitoring, as they do not provide direct or objective evidence of IT process results or outcomes. Real-time audit software is a type of tool that can help automate and facilitate audit activities, such as data collection, analysis, or reporting, but it does not provide information on IT process performance. Quality assurance (QA) reviews are a type of activity that can help evaluate and improve the quality of IT processes, products, or services, but they do not provide information on IT process performance. Participative management techniques are a type of method that can help involve and motivate IT staff in decision-making and problem-solving processes, but they do not provide information on IT process performance.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to maintain network integrity when using mobile devices?

A.
Implement network access control.
A.
Implement network access control.
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B.
Implement outbound firewall rules.
B.
Implement outbound firewall rules.
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C.
Perform network reviews.
C.
Perform network reviews.
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D.
Review access control lists.
D.
Review access control lists.
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The most effective way to maintain network integrity when using mobile devices is to implement network access control. Network access control is a security control that regulates and restricts access to network resources based on predefined policies and criteria, such as device type, identity, location, or security posture. Network access control can help maintain network integrity when using mobile devices by preventing unauthorized or compromised devices from accessing or affecting network systems or data. The other options are not as effective as network access control in maintaining network integrity when using mobile devices, as they do not address all aspects of network access or security. Implementing outbound firewall rules is a security control that filters and blocks network traffic based on source, destination, protocol, or port, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions. Performing network reviews is a monitoring activity that evaluates and reports on the performance, availability, or security of network resources, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions. Reviewing access control lists is a verification activity that validates and confirms the access rights and privileges of network users or devices, but it does not regulate or restrict network access based on device characteristics or conditions.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2

An IS auditor wants to determine who has oversight of staff performing a specific task and is referencing the organization's RACI chart. Which of the following roles within the chart would provide this information?

A.
Consulted
A.
Consulted
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B.
Informed
B.
Informed
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C.
Responsible
C.
Responsible
Answers
D.
Accountable
D.
Accountable
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The role within the RACI chart that would provide information on who has oversight of staff performing a specific task is accountable. A RACI chart is a matrix that defines and assigns the roles and responsibilities of different stakeholders for a project, process, or activity. RACI stands for responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed. Accountable is the role that has the authority and oversight to approve or reject the work done by the responsible role. The other options are not the roles that provide information on who has oversight of staff performing a specific task, as they have different meanings and functions. Consulted is the role that provides input or advice to the responsible or accountable roles. Informed is the role that receives updates or reports from the responsible or accountable roles. Responsible is the role that performs or executes the work or task.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

Which of the following is the BEST detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission?

A.
Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management.
A.
Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management.
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B.
Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP).
B.
Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP).
Answers
C.
Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review.
C.
Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review.
Answers
D.
Job failure alerts are automatically generated and routed to support personnel.
D.
Job failure alerts are automatically generated and routed to support personnel.
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The best detective control for a job scheduling process involving data transmission is job failure alerts that are automatically generated and routed to support personnel. Job failure alerts are notifications that indicate when a scheduled job or task fails to execute or complete successfully, such as due to errors, interruptions, or delays. Job failure alerts can help detect and correct any issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission by informing and alerting the support personnel who can investigate and resolve the problem. The other options are not as effective as job failure alerts in detecting issues or anomalies in the job scheduling process involving data transmission, as they do not provide timely or specific information or feedback. Metrics denoting the volume of monthly job failures are reported and reviewed by senior management is a reporting technique that can help measure and improve the performance and reliability of the job scheduling process, but it does not provide immediate or detailed information on individual job failures. Jobs are scheduled to be completed daily and data is transmitted using a Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is a preventive control that can help ensure the timeliness and security of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not detect any issues or anomalies that may occur during the process. Jobs are scheduled and a log of this activity is retained for subsequent review is a logging technique that can help record and track the status and results of the job scheduling process involving data transmission, but it does not provide real-time or proactive information on job failures.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

Which of the following should be an IS auditor's GREATEST consideration when scheduling follow-up activities for agreed-upon management responses to remediate audit observations?

A.
Business interruption due to remediation
A.
Business interruption due to remediation
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B.
IT budgeting constraints
B.
IT budgeting constraints
Answers
C.
Availability of responsible IT personnel
C.
Availability of responsible IT personnel
Answers
D.
Risk rating of original findings
D.
Risk rating of original findings
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The most important consideration for an IS auditor when scheduling follow-up activities for agreed-upon management responses to remediate audit observations is the risk rating of original findings. The risk rating of original findings is an assessment of the potential impact or likelihood of an audit issue or observation on the organization's objectives, operations, or reputation. The risk rating of original findings can help determine the priority and urgency of follow-up activities for agreed-upon management responses to remediate audit observations by ensuring that high-risk issues are addressed first and more frequently than low-risk issues. The other options are not as important as the risk rating of original findings in scheduling follow-up activities for agreed-upon management responses to remediate audit observations, as they do not reflect the significance or severity of audit issues or observations. Business interruption due to remediation is a possible consequence of implementing corrective actions to address audit issues or observations, but it does not indicate the priority or urgency of follow-up activities. IT budgeting constraints is a possible factor that may affect the availability or feasibility of resources for implementing corrective actions to address audit issues or observations, but it does not indicate the priority or urgency of follow-up activities. Availability of responsible IT personnel is a possible factor that may affect the accountability or responsiveness of staff for implementing corrective actions to address audit issues or observations, but it does not indicate the priority or urgency of follow-up activities.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.4

An IS auditor notes the transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release. Which of the following should the IS auditor review FIRST?

A.
Capacity management plan
A.
Capacity management plan
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B.
Training plans
B.
Training plans
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C.
Database conversion results
C.
Database conversion results
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D.
Stress testing results
D.
Stress testing results
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The first thing that an IS auditor should review when finding that transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release is stress testing results. Stress testing is a type of testing that evaluates how a system performs under extreme or abnormal conditions, such as high volume, load, or concurrency of transactions. Stress testing results can help explain why transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release by revealing any bottlenecks, limitations, or errors in the system's capacity, performance, or functionality under stress. The other options are not as relevant as stress testing results in explaining why transaction processing times in an order processing system have significantly increased after a major release, as they do not directly measure how the system performs under extreme or abnormal conditions. Capacity management plan is a document that defines and implements the processes and activities for ensuring that the system has adequate resources and capabilities to meet current and future demands. Training plans are documents that define and implement the processes and activities for ensuring that the system users have adequate skills and knowledge to use the system effectively and efficiently. Database conversion results are outcomes or outputs of transforming data from one format or structure to another to suit the system's requirements or specifications.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3

Secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program are which type of control?

A.
Detective
A.
Detective
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B.
Logical
B.
Logical
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C.
Preventive
C.
Preventive
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D.
Corrective
D.
Corrective
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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program are preventive controls. Preventive controls are controls that aim to prevent or avoid undesirable events or outcomes from occurring, such as errors, defects, or incidents. Secure code reviews are activities that examine and evaluate the source code of a software or application to identify and eliminate any vulnerabilities, flaws, or weaknesses that may compromise its security, functionality, or performance. Secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program can help prevent or avoid security issues or incidents from occurring by ensuring that the code is secure and compliant before it is deployed to production. The other options are not correct types of controls for secure code reviews as part of a continuous deployment program, as they have different meanings and functions. Detective controls are controls that aim to detect or discover undesirable events or outcomes that have occurred, such as errors, defects, or incidents. Logical controls are controls that use software or hardware mechanisms to regulate or restrict access to IT resources, such as data, systems, or networks. Corrective controls are controls that aim to correct or rectify undesirable events or outcomes that have occurred, such as errors, defects, or incidents.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

An organization's software developers need access to personally identifiable information (Pll) stored in a particular data format. Which of the following is the BEST way to protect this sensitive information while allowing the developers to use it in development and test environments?

A.
Data masking
A.
Data masking
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B.
Data tokenization
B.
Data tokenization
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C.
Data encryption
C.
Data encryption
Answers
D.
Data abstraction
D.
Data abstraction
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Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The best way to protect sensitive information such as personally identifiable information (PII) stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments is data masking. Data masking is a technique that replaces or obscures sensitive data elements with fictitious or modified data elements that retain the original format and characteristics of the data. Data masking can help protect sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments by preventing the exposure or disclosure of the real data values without affecting the functionality or performance of the software or application. The other options are not as effective as data masking in protecting sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments, as they have different limitations or drawbacks. Data tokenization is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive tokens that have no intrinsic value or meaning. Data tokenization can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or theft, but it may not retain the original format and characteristics of the data, which may affect the functionality or performance of the software or application. Data encryption is a technique that transforms sensitive data elements into unreadable or unintelligible ciphertext using an algorithm and a key. Data encryption can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or modification, but it requires decryption to restore the original data values, which may introduce additional complexity or overhead to the software development process. Data abstraction is a technique that hides the details or complexity of data structures or operations from users or programmers by providing a simplified representation or interface. Data abstraction can help improve the usability or maintainability of software or applications, but it does not protect sensitive information such as PII from exposure or disclosure.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2

Which of the following is MOST important to include in forensic data collection and preservation procedures?

A.
Assuring the physical security of devices
A.
Assuring the physical security of devices
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B.
Preserving data integrity
B.
Preserving data integrity
Answers
C.
Maintaining chain of custody
C.
Maintaining chain of custody
Answers
D.
Determining tools to be used
D.
Determining tools to be used
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The most important thing to include in forensic data collection and preservation procedures is preserving data integrity. Data integrity is the property that ensures that data is accurate, complete, and consistent throughout its lifecycle. Preserving data integrity is essential for forensic data collection and preservation procedures because it ensures that the data can be used as valid and reliable evidence in legal proceedings or investigations. Preserving data integrity can be achieved by using methods such as hashing, checksums, digital signatures, write blockers, tamper-evident seals, or timestamps. The other options are not as important as preserving data integrity in forensic data collection and preservation procedures, as they do not affect the validity or reliability of the data. Assuring the physical security of devices is a security measure that protects devices from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or destruction, but it does not ensure that the data on the devices is accurate, complete, and consistent. Maintaining chain of custody is a documentation technique that records and tracks the handling and transfer of devices or data among different parties involved in forensic activities, but it does not ensure that the data on the devices is accurate, complete, and consistent. Determining tools to be used is a planning activity that selects and prepares the appropriate tools for forensic data collection and preservation procedures, but it does not ensure that the data collected and preserved by the tools is accurate, complete, and consistent.Reference:CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4

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