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Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure new IT implementations align with enterprise architecture (EA) principles and requirements?

A.
Document the security view as part of the EA
A.
Document the security view as part of the EA
Answers
B.
Consider stakeholder concerns when defining the EA
B.
Consider stakeholder concerns when defining the EA
Answers
C.
Perform mandatory post-implementation reviews of IT implementations
C.
Perform mandatory post-implementation reviews of IT implementations
Answers
D.
Conduct EA reviews as part of the change advisory board
D.
Conduct EA reviews as part of the change advisory board
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The best way to help ensure new IT implementations align with enterprise architecture (EA) principles and requirements is to conduct EA reviews as part of the change advisory board (CAB). A CAB is a committee that evaluates and authorizes changes to IT services, such as new IT implementations. By conducting EA reviews as part of the CAB process, the organization can ensure that the proposed changes are consistent with the EA vision, goals, standards, and guidelines. This can help avoid potential conflicts, risks, or inefficiencies that may arise from misaligned IT implementations. Additionally, EA reviews can help identify opportunities for improvement, optimization, or innovation in the IT services.

The other options are not the best ways to help ensure new IT implementations align with EA principles and requirements. Documenting the security view as part of the EA is important, but it does not guarantee that new IT implementations will follow the security requirements or best practices. Considering stakeholder concerns when defining the EA is also essential, but it does not ensure that new IT implementations will meet the stakeholder expectations or needs. Performing mandatory post-implementation reviews of IT implementations is a good practice, but it does not prevent potential issues or problems that may arise from misaligned IT implementations.

5: Change Advisory Board Best Practices: 15+ Industry Leaders Weigh In

6: What Does the Change Advisory Board (CAB) Do?

7: How do I set up an effective change advisory board? - ServiceNow

8: ITIL Change Management - The Role of the Change Advisory Board

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor conducting an audit of an organization that recently experienced a ransomware attack?

A.
Antivirus software was unable to prevent the attack even though it was properly updated
A.
Antivirus software was unable to prevent the attack even though it was properly updated
Answers
B.
The most recent security patches were not tested prior to implementation
B.
The most recent security patches were not tested prior to implementation
Answers
C.
Backups were only performed within the local network
C.
Backups were only performed within the local network
Answers
D.
Employees were not trained on cybersecurity policies and procedures
D.
Employees were not trained on cybersecurity policies and procedures
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The greatest concern to an IS auditor conducting an audit of an organization that recently experienced a ransomware attack is that backups were only performed within the local network. This means that the backups could have been encrypted or deleted by the ransomware, making it impossible to restore the data and systems without paying the ransom or losing the data. Backups are a critical part of the recovery process from a ransomware attack, and they should be performed frequently, securely, and off-site or in the cloud to ensure their availability and integrity.

The other options are not as concerning as option C, although they may also indicate some security weaknesses. Antivirus software was unable to prevent the attack even though it was properly updated, but this is not surprising given that ransomware variants are constantly evolving and antivirus software may not be able to detect them all. The most recent security patches were not tested prior to implementation, but this is a trade-off between security and availability that may be justified depending on the severity and urgency of the patches. Employees were not trained on cybersecurity policies and procedures, but this is a preventive measure that may not have prevented the attack if it was initiated by other means such as phishing or exploiting vulnerabilities.

10: Infrastructure-as-a-Service Security Responsibilities - CloudTweaks

5: 3 steps to prevent and recover from ransomware | Microsoft Security Blog

7: How to Recover From a Ransomware Attack - eSecurityPlanet

An organization is migrating its HR application to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model in a private cloud. Who is PRIMARILY responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application's operating system?

A.
The cloud provider's external auditor
A.
The cloud provider's external auditor
Answers
B.
The cloud provider
B.
The cloud provider
Answers
C.
The operating system vendor
C.
The operating system vendor
Answers
D.
The organization
D.
The organization
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The organization is primarily responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application's operating system when migrating its HR application to an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model in a private cloud. This is because in an IaaS model, the cloud provider is responsible for the security of the underlying infrastructure that they lease to their customers, such as servers, storage, and networks, while the customer is responsible for the security of the areas of the cloud infrastructure over which they have control, such as operating systems, middleware, and applications. Therefore, the organization needs to ensure that the operating system is properly configured, patched, hardened, and monitored to protect the HR application from unauthorized access or malicious attacks.

The other options are not primarily responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application's operating system. The cloud provider's external auditor is not responsible for any security configurations, but rather for verifying and reporting on the cloud provider's compliance with relevant standards and regulations. The cloud provider is responsible for the security of the underlying infrastructure, but not for the operating system or any software installed on it by the customer. The operating system vendor is responsible for providing updates and patches for the operating system, but not for configuring or securing it according to the customer's needs.

11: What Is IaaS (Infrastructure As A Service)? - Forbes

12: What is Shared Responsibility Model? - Check Point Software

13: Who Is Responsible for Cloud Security? - Security Intelligence

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an IS auditor who is assessing an organization's configuration and release management process?

A.
The organization does not use an industry-recognized methodology
A.
The organization does not use an industry-recognized methodology
Answers
B.
Changes and change approvals are not documented
B.
Changes and change approvals are not documented
Answers
C.
All changes require middle and senior management approval
C.
All changes require middle and senior management approval
Answers
D.
There is no centralized configuration management database (CMDB)
D.
There is no centralized configuration management database (CMDB)
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The greatest concern to an IS auditor who is assessing an organization's configuration and release management process is that changes and change approvals are not documented. This is because documentation is essential for ensuring the traceability, accountability, and quality of the changes made to the configuration items (CIs) and the releases deployed to the production environment. Without documentation, it would be difficult to verify the authenticity, validity, and authorization of the changes, as well as to identify and resolve any issues or incidents that may arise from the changes. Documentation also helps to maintain compliance with internal and external standards and regulations, as well as to facilitate audits and reviews.

The other options are not as concerning as option B, although they may also indicate some weaknesses in the configuration and release management process. The organization does not use an industry-recognized methodology, but this does not necessarily mean that their process is ineffective or inefficient. The organization may have developed their own methodology that suits their specific needs and context. However, using an industry-recognized methodology could help them adopt best practices and improve their process maturity. All changes require middle and senior management approval, but this may not be a problem if the organization has a clear and streamlined approval process that does not cause delays or bottlenecks in the change implementation. However, requiring too many approvals could also introduce unnecessary complexity and bureaucracy in the process. There is no centralized configuration management database (CMDB), but this does not mean that the organization does not have a way of managing their CIs and their relationships. The organization may use other tools or methods to store and access their configuration data, such as spreadsheets, documents, or repositories. However, having a centralized CMDB could help them improve their visibility, accuracy, and consistency of their configuration data.

1: The Essential Guide to Release Management | Smartsheet

2: 5 steps to a successful release management process - Lucidchart

3: Configuration Management process overview - Micro Focus

4: Release and Deployment Management process overview - Micro Focus

An IS auditor is performing a follow-up audit for findings identified in an organization's user provisioning process Which of the following is the MOST appropriate population to sample from when testing for remediation?

A.
All users provisioned after the finding was originally identified
A.
All users provisioned after the finding was originally identified
Answers
B.
All users provisioned after management resolved the audit issue
B.
All users provisioned after management resolved the audit issue
Answers
C.
All users provisioned after the final audit report was issued
C.
All users provisioned after the final audit report was issued
Answers
D.
All users who have followed user provisioning processes provided by management
D.
All users who have followed user provisioning processes provided by management
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The most appropriate population to sample from when testing for remediation of findings identified in an organization's user provisioning process is all users provisioned after the final audit report was issued. This is because the final audit report is the official document that communicates the audit findings, recommendations, and action plans to the management and other stakeholders. It also establishes a baseline for measuring the progress and effectiveness of the remediation efforts. Therefore, sampling from the users provisioned after the final audit report was issued would provide the most relevant and reliable evidence of whether the audit issues have been resolved or not.

The other options are not as appropriate as option C, as they may not reflect the actual status of the remediation efforts. All users provisioned after the finding was originally identified may include users who were provisioned before the final audit report was issued, which may not capture the full impact of the remediation actions. All users provisioned after management resolved the audit issue may not be accurate, as management's resolution may not be verified or validated by an independent party. All users who have followed user provisioning processes provided by management may not be representative, as there may be exceptions or deviations from the processes that could affect the remediation results.

6: What Is User Provisioning? Definition, Process and Best Practices - Spiceworks

7: What Is User Provisioning? All You Need to Know in One Place - G2

8: What is User Account Provisioning? - Tools4ever

9: What Is Provisioning and Deprovisioning? | Okta

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of vulnerability scanning over penetration testing?

A.
The testing produces a lower number of false positive results
A.
The testing produces a lower number of false positive results
Answers
B.
Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently
B.
Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently
Answers
C.
Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately
C.
Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately
Answers
D.
The testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets
D.
The testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The greatest advantage of vulnerability scanning over penetration testing is that the testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets. Vulnerability scanning is an automated, high-level security test that reports its findings of known vulnerabilities in systems, networks, applications, and devices. Vulnerability scanning can be performed frequently, quickly, and efficiently to scan a large number of assets and identify potential weaknesses that need to be addressed.Vulnerability scanning can also help organizations comply with security standards and regulations, such as PCI DSS1.

The other options are not as advantageous as option D, as they may not reflect the true benefits or limitations of vulnerability scanning compared to penetration testing. The testing produces a lower number of false positive results, but this is not necessarily true, as vulnerability scanning may report vulnerabilities that are not exploitable or relevant in the context of the organization. Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently, but this may not be a significant advantage, as vulnerability scanning may still consume considerable network resources depending on the scope and frequency of the scans. Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately, but this is also not true, as vulnerability scanning may not be able to detect complex or unknown vulnerabilities that require manual analysis or exploitation.

1: Vulnerability scanning vs penetration testing: What's the difference? | TechRepublic

2: Vulnerability Scanning vs. Penetration Testing - Fortinet

3: Penetration Test Vs Vulnerability Scan | Digital Defense

4: Penetration Testing vs. Vulnerability Scanning: What's the difference?

5: Penetration Testing vs. Vulnerability Scanning | Secureworks

6: PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide - PCI Security Standards Council

Which of the following is the BEST reason for an IS auditor to emphasize to management the importance of using an IT governance framework?

A.
Frameworks enable IT benchmarks against competitors
A.
Frameworks enable IT benchmarks against competitors
Answers
B.
Frameworks can be tailored and optimized for different organizations
B.
Frameworks can be tailored and optimized for different organizations
Answers
C.
Frameworks help facilitate control self-assessments (CSAs)
C.
Frameworks help facilitate control self-assessments (CSAs)
Answers
D.
Frameworks help organizations understand and manage IT risk
D.
Frameworks help organizations understand and manage IT risk
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The best reason for an IS auditor to emphasize to management the importance of using an IT governance framework is that frameworks can be tailored and optimized for different organizations. An IT governance framework is a set of principles, guidelines, and processes that help an organization align its IT strategy with its business goals, manage IT risks and performance, and deliver value from IT investments. An IT governance framework can be adapted and customized to suit the specific needs, context, and culture of each organization, taking into account factors such as size, industry, maturity, objectives, and stakeholders.An IT governance framework can also help an organization adopt best practices and standards from various sources, such as COBIT2, ITIL3, ISO/IEC 200004, and others.

The other options are not as good as option B, as they may not capture the full scope or benefits of using an IT governance framework. Frameworks enable IT benchmarks against competitors, but this is not the main purpose or advantage of using an IT governance framework. Frameworks help facilitate control self-assessments (CSAs), but this is only one aspect or tool of an IT governance framework. Frameworks help organizations understand and manage IT risk, but this is also only one outcome or objective of an IT governance framework.

1: What is ITIL? Your guide to the IT Infrastructure Library | CIO

2: IT Governance Framework | Components | Framework | Terminology - EDUCBA

3: IT Governance: Definitions, Frameworks and Planning - ProjectManager

4: What Is IT Governance? - Definition from Techopedia

5: What is IT Governance? A formal way to align IT & business strategy | CIO

6: What Is IT Governance? - Definition from WhatIs.com

7: ISO/IEC 20000 Information Technology Service Management Systems Standard - ISO/IEC 20000 Portal

8: COBIT | Control Objectives for Information Technologies | ISACA

Which of the following technologies has the SMALLEST maximum range for data transmission between devices?

A.
Wi-Fi
A.
Wi-Fi
Answers
B.
Bluetooth
B.
Bluetooth
Answers
C.
Long-term evolution (LTE)
C.
Long-term evolution (LTE)
Answers
D.
Near-field communication (NFC)
D.
Near-field communication (NFC)
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The technology that has the smallest maximum range for data transmission between devices is near-field communication (NFC). NFC is a short-range wireless technology that enables two devices to communicate when they are in close proximity, usually within a few centimeters. NFC is commonly used for contactless payments, smart cards, and device pairing.According to the Bluetooth Technology Website1, the effective range of NFC is less than a meter, while the other technologies have much longer ranges.Wi-Fi can reach up to 100 meters indoors and 300 meters outdoors2.Bluetooth can reach up to 800 feet with Bluetooth 5.0 specification3.Long-term evolution (LTE) can reach up to several kilometers depending on the cell tower and the device4.

5: What is Wi-Fi? - Definition from WhatIs.com

6: Understanding Bluetooth Range | Bluetooth Technology Website

7: What is Bluetooth Range? What You Need to Know

8: How far can LTE signals travel? - Quora

Recovery facilities providing a redundant combination of Internet connections to the local communications loop is an example of which type of telecommunications continuity?

A.
Voice recovery
A.
Voice recovery
Answers
B.
Alternative routing
B.
Alternative routing
Answers
C.
Long-haul network diversity
C.
Long-haul network diversity
Answers
D.
Last-mile circuit protection
D.
Last-mile circuit protection
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Recovery facilities providing a redundant combination of Internet connections to the local communications loop is an example of last-mile circuit protection. Last-mile circuit protection is a type of telecommunications continuity that ensures the availability and redundancy of the final segment of the network that connects the end-user to the service provider. The local communications loop, also known as the local loop or subscriber line, is the physical link between the customer premises and the nearest central office or point of presence of the service provider.By having multiple Internet connections from different providers or technologies, such as cable, DSL, fiber, wireless, or satellite, the recovery facilities can avoid losing connectivity in case one of the connections fails or is disrupted by a disaster5.

9: Last Mile Redundancy - How to Ensure Business Continuity - Multapplied Networks

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of data integrity after file transfers?

A.
Check digits
A.
Check digits
Answers
B.
Monetary unit sampling
B.
Monetary unit sampling
Answers
C.
Hash values
C.
Hash values
Answers
D.
Reasonableness check
D.
Reasonableness check
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The best assurance of data integrity after file transfers is hash values. Hash values are unique strings that are generated by applying a mathematical function to the data. Hash values can be used to verify that the data has not been altered or corrupted during the transfer, as any change in the data would result in a different hash value. By comparing the hash values of the source and destination files, one can confirm that the data is identical and intact.

The other options are not as effective as hash values for ensuring data integrity after file transfers. Check digits are digits added to a number to detect errors in data entry or transmission, but they are not reliable for detecting intentional or complex modifications of the data. Monetary unit sampling is a statistical sampling technique used for auditing financial statements, but it is not applicable for verifying data integrity after file transfers. Reasonableness check is a validation method that checks whether the data falls within an expected range or format, but it does not guarantee that the data is accurate or consistent with the source.

5: On Windows, how to check that data is unchanged after copying? - Super User

6: Data integrity | Cloud Storage Transfer Service Documentation | Google Cloud

7: Checking File Integrity - HECC Knowledge Base

8: How to setup File Transfer Integrity Checks - Progress.com

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