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SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next question; Miraculous Healthcare is a large medical practice with multiple locations in California and Nevada. Miraculous normally treats patients in person, but has recently decided to start offering teleheaith appointments, where patients can have virtual appointments with on-site doctors via a phone app For this new initiative. Miraculous is considering a product built by MedApps, a company that makes quality teleheaith apps for healthcare practices and licenses them to be used with the practices' branding. MedApps provides technical support for the app. which it hosts in the cloud MedApps also offers an optional benchmarking service for providers who wish to compare their practice to others using the service Riya is the Privacy Officer at Miraculous, responsible for the practice's compliance with HIPAA and other applicable laws, and she works with the Miraculous procurement team to get vendor agreements in place. She occasionally assists procurement in vetting vendors and inquiring about their own compliance practices. as well as negotiating the terms of vendor agreements Riya is currently reviewing the suitability of the MedApps app from a privacy perspective. Riya has also been asked by the Miraculous Healthcare business operations team to review the MedApps' optional benchmarking service. Of particular concern is the requirement that Miraculous Healthcare upload information about the appointments to a portal hosted by MedApps What is the most practical action Riya can take to minimize the privacy risks of using an app for telehealth appointments?



SCENARIO Please use the following to answer the next QUESTION: You are the chief privacy officer at HealthCo, a major hospital in a large U.S. city in state A. HealthCo is a HIPAA-covered entity that provides healthcare services to more than 100,000 patients. A third-party cloud computing service provider, CloudHealth, stores and manages the electronic protected health information (ePHI) of these individuals on behalf of HealthCo. CloudHealth stores the data in state B. As part of HealthCo's business associate agreement (BAA) with CloudHealth, HealthCo requires CloudHealth to implement security measures, including industry standard encryption practices, to adequately protect the data. However, HealthCo did not perform due diligence on CloudHealth before entering the contract, and has not conducted audits of CloudHealth's security measures. A CloudHealth employee has recently become the victim of a phishing attack. When the employee unintentionally clicked on a link from a suspicious email, the PHI of more than 10,000 HealthCo patients was compromised. It has since been published online. The HealthCo cybersecurity team quickly identifies the perpetrator as a known hacker who has launched similar attacks on other hospitals -- ones that exposed the PHI of public figures including celebrities and politicians. During the course of its investigation, HealthCo discovers that CloudHealth has not encrypted the PHI in accordance with the terms of its contract. In addition, CloudHealth has not provided privacy or security training to its employees. Law enforcement has requested that HealthCo provide its investigative report of the breach and a copy of the PHI of the individuals affected. A patient affected by the breach then sues HealthCo, claiming that the company did not adequately protect the individual's ePHI, and that he has suffered substantial harm as a result of the exposed data. The patient's attorney has submitted a discovery request for the ePHI exposed in the breach. What is the most significant reason that the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) might impose a penalty on HealthCo?




Which of the following data elements is most likely to be subject to comprehensive state data security and privacy laws?

A.

Account holders' social security numbers, maintained by a bank.

A.

Account holders' social security numbers, maintained by a bank.

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B.

Users' sexual orientations, maintained by a social media website

B.

Users' sexual orientations, maintained by a social media website

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C.

Individual drivers' license numbers, maintained by a state agency.

C.

Individual drivers' license numbers, maintained by a state agency.

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D.

Contact details of individuals who report emergencies, maintained by local authorities

D.

Contact details of individuals who report emergencies, maintained by local authorities

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Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Social security numbers (SSNs) are one of the most sensitive types of personally identifiable information (PII) and are subject to comprehensive data security and privacy laws at both the federal and state levels. Banks, as financial institutions, are subject to strict regulations under laws like the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) and state privacy laws regarding the safeguarding of sensitive data like SSNs.

Why Social Security Numbers are Most Likely to Be Covered:

SSNs are a high-value target for identity theft, making their protection a focus of numerous privacy and data security laws.

Federal laws like GLBA and the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) impose strict data security requirements on financial institutions.

State laws, such as those in California, often require businesses to protect SSNs and notify individuals in the event of a breach involving sensitive information.

Explanation of Options:

A. Account holders' social security numbers, maintained by a bank: This is correct because SSNs are consistently protected under comprehensive laws at both the federal and state levels.

B. Users' sexual orientations, maintained by a social media website: While sexual orientation may be considered sensitive data under certain laws (e.g., GDPR in the EU), U.S. privacy laws do not consistently regulate this information.

C. Individual drivers' license numbers, maintained by a state agency: While some states regulate drivers' license data, this information is not comprehensively covered under state privacy laws.

D. Contact details of individuals who report emergencies, maintained by local authorities: This information is regulated in limited circumstances (e.g., Freedom of Information Act or public records laws) but is not subject to comprehensive state privacy laws.

Reference from CIPP/US Materials:

GLBA and FCRA: Highlight the importance of safeguarding sensitive financial information such as SSNs.

State Data Breach Notification Laws: Many states explicitly list SSNs as a protected data element.

Which of the following conditions would NOT be sufficient to excuse an entity from providing breach notification under state law?

A.

If the data involved was encrypted.

A.

If the data involved was encrypted.

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B.

If the data involved was accessed but not exported.

B.

If the data involved was accessed but not exported.

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C.

If the entity was subject to the GLBA Safeguards Rule.

C.

If the entity was subject to the GLBA Safeguards Rule.

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D.

If the entity followed internal notification procedures compatible with state law.

D.

If the entity followed internal notification procedures compatible with state law.

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Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Most state breach notification laws require entities to notify affected individuals and/or regulators when there is unauthorized access to or acquisition of personal information that compromises its security, confidentiality, or integrity. However, some states provide exceptions to this requirement under certain conditions, such as:

If the data involved was encrypted or otherwise rendered unreadable or unusable, and the encryption key or other means of access was not compromised. This is based on the assumption that encrypted data is not accessible to unauthorized parties, even if they obtain the data.

If the entity was subject to and complied with another federal or state law that provides similar or greater protection and notification requirements, such as the GLBA Safeguards Rule or the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule. This is to avoid duplication or inconsistency of obligations for entities that are already regulated by other laws.

If the entity conducted a risk assessment and determined that there is no reasonable likelihood of harm to the affected individuals, based on factors such as the nature and extent of the data, the circumstances of the breach, the evidence of misuse, and the ability to mitigate the risk. This is to allow entities to exercise some discretion and judgment in evaluating the potential impact of the breach.

However, none of the state laws provide an exception for the mere access of data without exportation. Access alone is considered a breach that triggers the notification requirement, unless one of the other conditions applies. Therefore, option B is not a sufficient excuse for not providing breach notification under state law.

[IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 9: State Data Security Laws, pp. 209-211.

CIPP/US Practice Questions (Sample Questions), Question 29.

The use of cookies on a website by a service provider is generally not deemed a 'sale' of personal information by CCPA, as long as which of the following conditions is met?

A.

The third party stores personal information to trigger a response to a consumer's request to exercise their right to opt in.

A.

The third party stores personal information to trigger a response to a consumer's request to exercise their right to opt in.

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B.

The analytics cookies placed by the service provider are capable of being tracked but cannot be linked to a particular consumer of that business.

B.

The analytics cookies placed by the service provider are capable of being tracked but cannot be linked to a particular consumer of that business.

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C.

The service provider retains personal information obtained in the course of providing the services specified in the agreement with the subcontractors.

C.

The service provider retains personal information obtained in the course of providing the services specified in the agreement with the subcontractors.

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D.

The information collected by the service provider is necessary to perform debugging and the business and service provider have entered into an appropriate agreement.

D.

The information collected by the service provider is necessary to perform debugging and the business and service provider have entered into an appropriate agreement.

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) defines a 'sale' of personal information as any transfer or disclosure of personal information to another business or third party for monetary or other valuable consideration. However, the CCPA also provides some exceptions to this definition, such as:

If the consumer has directed the business to intentionally disclose the personal information or use the personal information to interact with a third party, provided the third party does not also sell the personal information.

If the business transfers the personal information to a service provider that is contractually prohibited from retaining, using, or disclosing the personal information for any purpose other than performing the services specified in the contract with the business.

If the business transfers the personal information to a third party as part of a merger, acquisition, bankruptcy, or other transaction in which the third party assumes control of all or part of the business, provided the information is used or shared consistently with the CCPA.

The use of cookies on a website by a service provider is generally not deemed a sale of personal information by the CCPA, as long as the information collected by the service provider is necessary to perform the services specified in the contract with the business, and the service provider does not further collect, sell, or use the personal information of the consumer except as necessary to perform the business purpose. One of the examples of a valid business purpose is to perform debugging to identify and repair errors that impair existing intended functionality.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it describes a scenario where the use of cookies by a service provider is not a sale of personal information under the CCPA, assuming the service provider complies with the contractual obligations and does not further use or disclose the information.

Option A is incorrect, as it does not describe a valid exception to the definition of a sale. The third party that stores personal information to trigger a response to a consumer's request to opt in is not acting as a service provider, but as a separate entity that may have its own interest in the personal information. The consumer's request to opt in does not necessarily imply that the consumer has directed the business to disclose the personal information to the third party.

Option B is incorrect, as it does not describe a valid exception to the definition of a sale. The analytics cookies placed by the service provider may still constitute a sale of personal information, even if they cannot be linked to a particular consumer of that business. The CCPA defines personal information broadly to include any information that identifies, relates to, describes, is reasonably capable of being associated with, or could reasonably be linked, directly or indirectly, with a particular consumer or household. Therefore, the analytics cookies may still fall within the scope of personal information, and their use by the service provider may still be a sale, unless one of the exceptions applies.

Option C is incorrect, as it does not describe a valid exception to the definition of a sale. The service provider that retains personal information obtained in the course of providing the services specified in the agreement with the subcontractors is not acting as a service provider to the business, but as a separate entity that may have its own interest in the personal information. The agreement with the subcontractors does not necessarily imply that the business has authorized the service provider to retain, use, or disclose the personal information for any purpose other than performing the services specified in the contract with the business.

[IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 10: California Consumer Privacy Act, pp. 223-226.

CIPP/US Practice Questions (Sample Questions), Question 30.

Under the Driver's Privacy Protection Act (DPPA), which of the following parties would require consent of an individual in order to obtain his or her Department of Motor Vehicle information?

A.

Law enforcement agencies performing investigations.

A.

Law enforcement agencies performing investigations.

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B.

Insurance companies needing to investigate claims.

B.

Insurance companies needing to investigate claims.

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C.

Attorneys gathering information related to lawsuits.

C.

Attorneys gathering information related to lawsuits.

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D.

Marketers wishing to distribute bulk materials.

D.

Marketers wishing to distribute bulk materials.

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Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The Driver's Privacy Protection Act (DPPA) is a federal law that regulates the disclosure of personal information obtained by state departments of motor vehicles (DMVs). The DPPA prohibits DMVs and other entities that receive such information from DMVs from disclosing it to anyone without the express consent of the individual to whom the information pertains, unless the disclosure falls under one of the 14 exceptions listed in the statute.

Some of the exceptions that allow disclosure of personal information from DMV records without consent are:

For use by any government agency, including any court or law enforcement agency, in carrying out its functions, or any private person or entity acting on behalf of a government agency in carrying out its functions.

For use in connection with matters of motor vehicle or driver safety and theft; motor vehicle emissions; motor vehicle product alterations, recalls, or advisories; performance monitoring of motor vehicles, motor vehicle parts and dealers; motor vehicle market research activities, including survey research; and removal of non-owner records from the original owner records of motor vehicle manufacturers.

For use in the normal course of business by a legitimate business or its agents, employees, or contractors, but only to verify the accuracy of personal information submitted by the individual to the business or its agents, employees, or contractors; and if such information as so submitted is not correct or is no longer correct, to obtain the correct information, but only for the purposes of preventing fraud by, pursuing legal remedies against, or recovering on a debt or security interest against, the individual.

For use in connection with any civil, criminal, administrative, or arbitral proceeding in any federal, state, or local court or agency or before any self-regulatory body, including the service of process, investigation in anticipation of litigation, and the execution or enforcement of judgments and orders, or pursuant to an order of a federal, state, or local court.

For use in research activities, and for use in producing statistical reports, so long as the personal information is not published, redisclosed, or used to contact individuals.

For use by any insurer or insurance support organization, or by a self-insured entity, or its agents, employees, or contractors, in connection with claims investigation activities, antifraud activities, rating or underwriting.

For use in providing notice to the owners of towed or impounded vehicles.

For use by any licensed private investigative agency or licensed security service for any purpose permitted under this subsection.

For use by an employer or its agent or insurer to obtain or verify information relating to a holder of a commercial driver's license that is required under chapter 313 of title 49.

For use in connection with the operation of private toll transportation facilities.

For any other use specifically authorized under the law of the state that holds the record, if such use is related to the operation of a motor vehicle or public safety.

None of the exceptions above apply to the use of personal information from DMV records by marketers wishing to distribute bulk materials. Therefore, such use would require the consent of the individual to whom the information pertains, according to the DPPA. Hence, option D is the correct answer.

Option A is incorrect, as law enforcement agencies performing investigations are exempt from the consent requirement under the first exception.

Option B is incorrect, as insurance companies needing to investigate claims are exempt from the consent requirement under the sixth exception.

Option C is incorrect, as attorneys gathering information related to lawsuits are exempt from the consent requirement under the fourth exception.

[IAPP CIPP/US Study Guide], Chapter 8: Federal Privacy Laws, pp. 181-182.

CIPP/US Practice Questions (Sample Questions), Question 31.

Which of the following federal agencies does NOT have regulatory authority related to privacy?

A.

Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.

A.

Consumer Financial Protection Bureau.

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B.

U.S. Department of Transportation.

B.

U.S. Department of Transportation.

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C.

U.S. Department of Commerce.

C.

U.S. Department of Commerce.

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D.

Federal Reserve

D.

Federal Reserve

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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The U.S. Department of Commerce (DOC) is a federal agency that promotes economic growth, trade, and innovation, but does not have regulatory authority related to privacy.The DOC administers several voluntary privacy frameworks, such as the Privacy Shield, the APEC Cross-Border Privacy Rules, and the NIST Privacy Framework, but these are not legally binding or enforceable by the DOC12.The DOC also participates in international privacy negotiations and dialogues, but does not have the power to issue rules or regulations on privacy matters3.

The other three options are examples of federal agencies that do have regulatory authority related to privacy.The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB) is an independent agency that enforces consumer protection laws, such as the Fair Credit Reporting Act, the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act, and the Dodd-Frank Act, which contain privacy and data security provisions4. The U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) is a federal agency that regulates transportation safety, security, and infrastructure, and has issued privacy rules for airlines, motor carriers, and railroads.The Federal Reserve (FRB) is an independent agency that oversees the nation's monetary policy, banking system, and financial stability, and has issued privacy rules for financial institutions under its jurisdiction.Reference:1:Privacy Shield Program Overview | International Trade Administration2:NIST Privacy Framework | NIST3:Privacy and Data Security | U.S. Department of Commerce4:Consumer Financial Protection Bureau - Wikipedia: [Privacy | US Department of Transportation] : [Privacy - Federal Reserve Board]

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