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Which of the following is typical of software licensing in the cloud?

A.
Per socket
A.
Per socket
Answers
B.
Perpetual
B.
Perpetual
Answers
C.
Subscription-based
C.
Subscription-based
Answers
D.
Site-based
D.
Site-based
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

Cloud software licensing refers to the process of managing and storing software licenses in the cloud. The benefits of cloud software licensing models are vast. The main and most attractive benefit has to do with the ease of use for software vendors and the ability to provide customizable cloud software license management based on customer needs and desires1. Cloud-based licensing gives software developers and vendors the opportunity to deliver software easily and quickly and gives customers full control over their licenses, their analytics, and more1. Cloud based licensing gives software sellers the ability to add subscription models to their roster of services1. Subscription models are one of the most popular forms of licensing today1. Users sign up for a subscription (often based on various options and levels of use, features, etc.) and receive their licenses instantly1.

Reference: 1 Everything You Need to Know about Cloud Licensing | Thales

A server administrator wants to run a performance monitor for optimal system utilization. Which of the following metrics can the administrator use for monitoring? (Choose two.)

A.
Memory
A.
Memory
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B.
Page file
B.
Page file
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C.
Services
C.
Services
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D.
Application
D.
Application
Answers
E.
CPU
E.
CPU
Answers
F.
Heartbeat
F.
Heartbeat
Answers
Suggested answer: A, E

Explanation:

Memory and CPU are two metrics that can be used for monitoring system utilization. Memory refers to the amount of RAM that is available and used by the system and its processes. CPU refers to the percentage of processor time that is consumed by the system and its processes. Both memory and CPU can affect the performance and responsiveness of the system and its applications. Monitoring memory and CPU can help identify bottlenecks, resource contention, memory leaks, high load, etc.

After configuring IP networking on a newly commissioned server, a server administrator installs a straight- through network cable from the patch panel to the switch. The administrator then returns to the server to test network connectivity using the ping command. The partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands are displayed below:

The administrator returns to the switch and notices an amber link light on the port where the server is connected. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of network connectivity?

A.
Network port security
A.
Network port security
Answers
B.
An improper VLAN configuration
B.
An improper VLAN configuration
Answers
C.
A misconfigured DHCP server
C.
A misconfigured DHCP server
Answers
D.
A misconfigured NIC on the server
D.
A misconfigured NIC on the server
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A misconfigured NIC on the server is the most likely reason for the lack of network connectivity. The output of the ping command shows that the server is unable to reach its default gateway (10.0.0.1) or any other IP address on the network. The output of the ipconfig command shows that the server has a valid IP address (10.0.0.10) and subnet mask (255.255.255.0) but no default gateway configured. This indicates that there is a problem with the NIC settings on the server, such as an incorrect IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc. A misconfigured NIC can also cause an amber link light on the switch port, which indicates a speed or duplex mismatch between the NIC and the switch.

A user cannot save large files to a directory on a Linux server that was accepting smaller files a few minutes ago. Which of the following commands should a technician use to identify the issue?

A.
pvdisplay
A.
pvdisplay
Answers
B.
mount
B.
mount
Answers
C.
df -h
C.
df -h
Answers
D.
fdisk -l
D.
fdisk -l
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The df -h command should be used to identify the issue of not being able to save large files to a directory on a Linux server. The df -h command displays disk space usage in human-readable format for all mounted file systems on the server. It shows the total size, used space, available space, percentage of use, and mount point of each file system. By using this command, a technician can check if there is enough free space on the file system where the directory is located or if it has reached its capacity limit.

Following a recent power outage, a server in the datacenter has been constantly going offline and losing its configuration. Users have been experiencing access issues while using the application on the server. The server technician notices the data and time are incorrect when the server is online. All other servers are working. Which of the following would MOST likely cause this issue? (Choose two.)

A.
The server has a faulty power supply
A.
The server has a faulty power supply
Answers
B.
The server has a CMOS battery failure
B.
The server has a CMOS battery failure
Answers
C.
The server requires OS updates
C.
The server requires OS updates
Answers
D.
The server has a malfunctioning LED panel
D.
The server has a malfunctioning LED panel
Answers
E.
The servers do not have NTP configured
E.
The servers do not have NTP configured
Answers
F.
The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers
F.
The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers
Answers
Suggested answer: B, F

Explanation:

The server has a CMOS battery failure and the time synchronization service is disabled on the servers. The CMOS battery is a small battery on the motherboard that powers the BIOS settings and keeps track of the date and time when the server is powered off. If the CMOS battery fails, the server will lose its configuration and display an incorrect date and time when it is powered on. This can cause access issues for users and applications that rely on accurate time stamps. The time synchronization service is a service that synchronizes the system clock with a reliable external time source, such as a network time protocol (NTP) server. If the time synchronization service is disabled on the servers, they will not be able to update their clocks automatically and may drift out of sync with each other and with the network. This can also cause access issues for users and applications that require consistent and accurate time across the network.

A company has implemented a requirement to encrypt all the hard drives on its servers as part of a data loss prevention strategy. Which of the following should the company also perform as a data loss prevention method?

A.
Encrypt all network traffic
A.
Encrypt all network traffic
Answers
B.
Implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data
B.
Implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data
Answers
C.
Block the servers from using an encrypted USB
C.
Block the servers from using an encrypted USB
Answers
D.
Implement port security on the switches
D.
Implement port security on the switches
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

The company should also implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data as a data loss prevention method. MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more pieces of evidence, such as something they know (e.g., a password), something they have (e.g., a token), or something they are (e.g., a fingerprint). MFA adds an extra layer of security to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data, even if the user’s password is compromised or stolen. Encrypting the hard drives on the servers protects the data from being read or copied if the drives are physically removed or stolen, but it does not prevent unauthorized access to the data if the user’s credentials are valid.

A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard. Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?

A.
11.251.196.241
A.
11.251.196.241
Answers
B.
171.245.198.241
B.
171.245.198.241
Answers
C.
172.16.19.241
C.
172.16.19.241
Answers
D.
193.168.145.241
D.
193.168.145.241
Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The administrator should use 172.16.19.241 as an IP address to be in compliance with RFC 1918 standard. RFC 1918 defines three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for private internets, meaning they are not globally routable on the public Internet and can be used within an enterprise without any risk of conflict or overlap with other networks. These ranges are:

10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10/8 prefix)

172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16/12 prefix)

192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.168/16 prefix)

Out of these ranges, only 172.16.19.241 falls within one of them (172.16/12 prefix). The other options are either public IP addresses that belong to other organizations or networks (11.251.196.241, 171.245.198.241) or invalid IP addresses that do not conform to any standard (193.168.145.241).

Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/RFC-1918

An administrator needs to perform bare-metal maintenance on a server in a remote datacenter. Which of the following should the administrator use to access the server’s console?

A.
IP KVM
A.
IP KVM
Answers
B.
VNC
B.
VNC
Answers
C.
A crash cart
C.
A crash cart
Answers
D.
RDP
D.
RDP
Answers
E.
SSH
E.
SSH
Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

The administrator should use an IP KVM to access the server’s console remotely for bare-metal maintenance. An IP KVM stands for Internet Protocol Keyboard Video Mouse, which is a device that allows remote control of a server’s keyboard, video, and mouse over a network connection, such as LAN or Internet. An IP KVM enables an administrator to perform tasks such as BIOS configuration, boot sequence selection, operating system installation, etc., without being physically present at the server location.

The other options are not suitable for bare-metal maintenance because they require either physical access to the server (a crash cart) or an operating system running on the server (VNC, RDP, SSH). A crash cart is a mobile unit that contains a monitor, keyboard, mouse, and cables that can be plugged into a server for direct access to its console. VNC stands for Virtual Network Computing, which is a software that allows remote desktop sharing and control over a network connection using a graphical user interface (GUI). RDP stands for Remote Desktop Protocol, which is a protocol that allows remote desktop access and control over a network connection using a GUI or command-line interface (CLI). SSH stands for Secure Shell, which is a protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution over a network connection using a CLI.

A technician needs to provide a VM with high availability. Which of the following actions should the technician take to complete this task as efficiently as possible?

A.
Take a snapshot of the original VM
A.
Take a snapshot of the original VM
Answers
B.
Clone the original VM
B.
Clone the original VM
Answers
C.
Convert the original VM to use dynamic disks
C.
Convert the original VM to use dynamic disks
Answers
D.
Perform a P2V of the original VM
D.
Perform a P2V of the original VM
Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Cloning the original VM is the most efficient way to provide a VM with high availability. Cloning is the process of creating an exact copy of a VM, including its configuration, operating system, applications, and data. A cloned VM can be used as a backup or a replica of the original VM, and can be powered on and run independently. Cloning can be done quickly and easily using vSphere tools or other thirdparty software. By cloning the original VM and placing it on a different host server or availability zone, the technician can ensure that if the original VM fails, the cloned VM can take over its role and provide uninterrupted service to the users and applications.

A server administrator receives a report that Ann, a new user, is unable to save a file to her home directory on a server. The administrator checks Ann’s home directory permissions and discovers the following:

dr-xr-xr-- /home/Ann

Which of the following commands should the administrator use to resolve the issue without granting unnecessary permissions?

A.
chmod 777 /home/Ann
A.
chmod 777 /home/Ann
Answers
B.
chmod 666 /home/Ann
B.
chmod 666 /home/Ann
Answers
C.
chmod 711 /home/Ann
C.
chmod 711 /home/Ann
Answers
D.
chmod 754 /home/Ann
D.
chmod 754 /home/Ann
Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The administrator should use the command chmod 754 /home/Ann to resolve the issue without granting unnecessary permissions. The chmod command is used to change the permissions of files and directories on a Linux server. The permissions are represented by three numbers, each ranging from 0 to 7, that correspond to the read ®, write (w), and execute (x) permissions for the owner, group, and others respectively. The numbers are calculated by adding up the values of each permission: r = 4, w = 2, x = 1. For example, 7 means rwx (4 + 2 + 1), 6 means rw- (4 + 2), 5 means r-x (4 + 1), etc. In this case, Ann’s home directory has the permissions dr-xr-xr–, which means that only the owner (d) can read ® and execute (x) the directory, and the group and others can only read ® and execute (x) but not write (w) to it. This prevents Ann from saving files to her home directory. To fix this issue, the administrator should grant write permission to the owner by using chmod 754 /home/Ann, which means that the owner can read ®, write (w), and execute (x) the directory, the group can read ® and execute (x) but not write (w) to it, and others can only read ® but not write (w) or execute (x) it. This way, Ann can save files to her home directory without giving unnecessary permissions to others.

Reference:

https://linuxize.com/post/what-does-chmod-777-mean/

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