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Which of the following is a benefit of failover NIC teaming?

A.

Decreased latency

A.

Decreased latency

Answers
B.

Increased transmission size

B.

Increased transmission size

Answers
C.

Increased system resources

C.

Increased system resources

Answers
D.

Increased fault tolerance

D.

Increased fault tolerance

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Failover NIC teaming (Network Interface Card teaming) is a method used to provide fault tolerance by combining two or more NICs into a single logical interface. If one NIC fails, the other NIC(s) take over, ensuring continuous network connectivity.

Increased fault tolerance (Answer D): The primary benefit of failover NIC teaming is to ensure that network communication is not interrupted when one NIC fails. The remaining NICs take over to maintain uptime.

Decreased latency (Option A): NIC teaming is not primarily used to reduce latency; it's focused on redundancy and fault tolerance.

Increased transmission size (Option B): NIC teaming does not directly increase the size of transmissions.

Increased system resources (Option C): NIC teaming doesn't increase system resources like CPU or memory, but it ensures network redundancy.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.4: Summarize methods used to manage network connections.

A systems administrator notices that a SAN is running out of space. There is no additional funding in the budget to upgrade the storage space. Which of the following will significantly reduce the storage space with the least effort? (Select two).

A.

Configuring compression

A.

Configuring compression

Answers
B.

Deleting old and unused files

B.

Deleting old and unused files

Answers
C.

Increasing the number of IOPS

C.

Increasing the number of IOPS

Answers
D.

Decreasing the RAID level

D.

Decreasing the RAID level

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E.

Enabling deduplication

E.

Enabling deduplication

Answers
F.

Upgrading the filesystem type

F.

Upgrading the filesystem type

Answers
Suggested answer: A, E

Explanation:

To free up storage space on a SAN with minimal effort and no additional cost, the following methods can be used:

Configuring compression (Answer A): Compression reduces the size of files stored on the SAN, allowing more data to be stored in the same space.

Enabling deduplication (Answer E): Deduplication identifies and removes duplicate copies of data, reducing the amount of space required for storage.

Deleting old and unused files (Option B): While effective, this requires manual effort and may not be the best long-term solution.

Increasing the number of IOPS (Option C): This relates to improving performance, not reducing storage space.

Decreasing the RAID level (Option D): Lowering the RAID level could reduce redundancy, which may free up space but also decreases fault tolerance.

Upgrading the filesystem type (Option F): This is a complex process that doesn't directly reduce storage usage.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 3.2: Summarize storage technologies and solutions.

A college is planning for disaster recovery and needs to have access at all times to student data, which contains PII (Personally Identifiable Information). Which of the following would be the most appropriate for the college?

A.

A warm site with private cloud backup

A.

A warm site with private cloud backup

Answers
B.

A warm site with public cloud backup

B.

A warm site with public cloud backup

Answers
C.

A cold site with public cloud backup

C.

A cold site with public cloud backup

Answers
D.

A hot site with private cloud backup

D.

A hot site with private cloud backup

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A hot site with private cloud backup is the most suitable for environments that require continuous access to critical data, like student data containing PII. A hot site is fully operational and ready to take over immediately in case of a disaster. Using a private cloud provides more control and security, which is important when handling sensitive data like PII.

Hot site with private cloud backup (Answer D): This ensures minimal downtime and robust security, which is critical for handling PII.

Warm site (Options A & B): A warm site has some infrastructure ready but requires some setup before becoming operational, which introduces some delay.

Cold site (Option C): A cold site has the least preparation and requires significant time to become operational, which would not meet the requirement for constant availability.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is addressed in SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Summarize disaster recovery methods and concepts.

Which of the following should be created to understand how long data is stored and how frequently data backups should be scheduled?

A.

Retention policies

A.

Retention policies

Answers
B.

Service-level agreement

B.

Service-level agreement

Answers
C.

Life-cycle management

C.

Life-cycle management

Answers
D.

Mean time to recover

D.

Mean time to recover

Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Retention policies define how long data should be kept before being archived or deleted and help in determining the frequency of backups to ensure data is available when needed. These policies are crucial for compliance, storage management, and disaster recovery planning.

Retention policies (Answer A): These directly address how long data is kept and how often it should be backed up.

Service-level agreement (Option B): SLAs define performance expectations and uptime, not specific data retention or backup schedules.

Life-cycle management (Option C): This refers to managing data from creation to disposal but doesn't specifically address backup frequency or retention periods.

Mean time to recover (Option D): This metric measures how long it takes to restore services after a failure, not backup scheduling.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 4.2: Explain the importance of data security concepts.

While a technician is troubleshooting a performance issue on a database server, users are disconnected from the database. An administrator is asked to intervene and restore access. Which of the following steps should the administrator take first?

A.

Revert any patches or updates on the server from the past 24 hours

A.

Revert any patches or updates on the server from the past 24 hours

Answers
B.

Reproduce the issue in a test environment and confirm the database fails in the same manner

B.

Reproduce the issue in a test environment and confirm the database fails in the same manner

Answers
C.

Perform a root cause analysis and report the issue to management

C.

Perform a root cause analysis and report the issue to management

Answers
D.

Collect all logs from the system and review the actions the technician performed

D.

Collect all logs from the system and review the actions the technician performed

Answers
E.

Perform a quick backup of the system to prevent any further issues

E.

Perform a quick backup of the system to prevent any further issues

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

The first step when addressing an urgent issue like a database disconnection should be to gather information to understand what actions caused the problem. Collecting all logs and reviewing the technician's actions (Answer D) will help identify what went wrong and guide appropriate remediation. Restoring access quickly is the priority, and without reviewing logs, it would be hard to identify the root cause or prevent further damage.

Reverting patches (Option A): Reverting patches might cause more issues if the problem isn't directly related to a recent update.

Reproducing the issue (Option B): Reproduction is useful in a controlled environment but not practical as an immediate first step in production.

Root cause analysis (Option C): This is necessary but should come after restoring access.

Performing a quick backup (Option E): While backups are crucial, this step might not help resolve the current access problem and can delay troubleshooting.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 3.4: Explain troubleshooting theory and methodologies.

A technician needs to replace two RAID controllers on a database server as part of an upgrade. The server has six external storage arrays and eight internal disks that are controlled by the two RAID controllers. The technician completes the replacement and powers the systems back on, but the server OS detects several missing disks in the configuration. Which of the following steps should the technician take first to resolve this issue?

A.

Reboot to the RAID controller BIOS and rescan for attached disks and arrays

A.

Reboot to the RAID controller BIOS and rescan for attached disks and arrays

Answers
B.

Start the motherboard UEFI and confirm the RAID controller start order is correct

B.

Start the motherboard UEFI and confirm the RAID controller start order is correct

Answers
C.

Turn off the external arrays and reboot the server to redetect the internal disks first

C.

Turn off the external arrays and reboot the server to redetect the internal disks first

Answers
D.

Turn off all components and confirm all external and internal cables before rebooting

D.

Turn off all components and confirm all external and internal cables before rebooting

Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

When new RAID controllers are installed and disks go missing, the first logical step is to reboot to the RAID controller BIOS and rescan for attached disks and arrays (Answer A). This will allow the RAID controller to detect the connected drives and rebuild the RAID configuration as expected.

Rebooting to RAID controller BIOS (Answer A): This step ensures that all the attached disks and arrays are properly detected and mapped to the RAID configuration.

Checking UEFI settings (Option B): This might be useful later, but initially, the RAID controller BIOS should be checked first to verify disk detection.

Turning off external arrays (Option C): While this could be helpful in some scenarios, it's not the most efficient first step.

Checking cables (Option D): This could be necessary, but since the controllers were just replaced, software/BIOS configurations should be checked first.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 3.1: Install and configure server components.

An administrator is tasked with building an environment consisting of four servers that can each serve the same website. Which of the following concepts is described?

A.

Load balancing

A.

Load balancing

Answers
B.

Direct access

B.

Direct access

Answers
C.

Overprovisioning

C.

Overprovisioning

Answers
D.

Network teaming

D.

Network teaming

Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

Load balancing is a method used to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers. In this scenario, the administrator is tasked with ensuring that all four servers can serve the same website, which is a typical use case for load balancing.

Load balancing (Answer A): Distributes web traffic across multiple servers to ensure availability and reliability.

Direct access (Option B): Refers to client devices connecting directly to a network resource, unrelated to the described scenario.

Overprovisioning (Option C): Refers to allocating more resources than are currently needed, not relevant to load distribution.

Network teaming (Option D): Involves combining multiple network interfaces for redundancy or increased throughput but doesn't address server distribution.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.4: Explain networking concepts for server environments.

A server administrator created a new script and included the path to the script binary as the first line of the script. Which of the following scripting languages did the administrator most likely use?

A.

Batch

A.

Batch

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B.

Java

B.

Java

Answers
C.

Bash

C.

Bash

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D.

PowerShell

D.

PowerShell

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Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

In Bash (a Unix/Linux shell scripting language), it is common to include the shebang (#!) followed by the path to the interpreter (e.g., #!/bin/bash) on the first line of the script. This tells the operating system which interpreter to use to execute the script.

Bash (Answer C): Bash scripts often start with a shebang line that specifies the path to the binary (#!/bin/bash).

Batch (Option A): Batch scripts (used in Windows) do not require a path to the interpreter on the first line.

Java (Option B): Java is a compiled language, not a scripting language, so this does not apply.

PowerShell (Option D): PowerShell scripts (.ps1 files) do not typically require specifying the interpreter path on the first line.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 1.1: Understand scripting basics and the use of interpreters.

Which of the following describes the concept of allocating more resources than what is available on a hypervisor?

A.

Direct access

A.

Direct access

Answers
B.

Overprovisioning

B.

Overprovisioning

Answers
C.

Link aggregation

C.

Link aggregation

Answers
D.

Component redundancy

D.

Component redundancy

Answers
E.

Scalability

E.

Scalability

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Overprovisioning refers to allocating more resources (e.g., CPU, memory) to virtual machines on a hypervisor than the physical host actually has available. This is done because not all virtual machines are likely to use their maximum resources simultaneously. Overprovisioning helps optimize resource utilization on a hypervisor but must be managed carefully to avoid performance degradation.

Overprovisioning (Answer B): It allows for more efficient use of resources, but overcommitting too much can lead to performance issues.

Direct access (Option A): Refers to direct hardware access, which is unrelated to resource allocation.

Link aggregation (Option C): Refers to combining multiple network connections, unrelated to hypervisor resources.

Component redundancy (Option D): Refers to using backup components for fault tolerance, not related to overprovisioning.

Scalability (Option E): Refers to the ability to increase or decrease resources as needed but doesn't describe overcommitting resources.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.3: Explain virtualization concepts and benefits.

Which of the following backup methods can be performed while a server is running, will not interrupt files in use, and can be used to fully restore the server if needed?

A.

Snapshot

A.

Snapshot

Answers
B.

Archive

B.

Archive

Answers
C.

Open file

C.

Open file

Answers
D.

Differential

D.

Differential

Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A snapshot is a point-in-time image of a system's state that can be created while the system is running, without interrupting operations. Snapshots can be used to restore the entire system to the exact state at the time of the snapshot. They are commonly used in virtualized environments and allow administrators to roll back to a previous state if needed.

Snapshot (Answer A): Captures the entire system's state and can be taken without downtime.

Archive (Option B): Refers to long-term storage, not necessarily something that supports live backups.

Open file (Option C): Refers to a method that handles open files during backup but doesn't provide full system restoration capabilities.

Differential (Option D): Backs up only the data changed since the last full backup but still requires a full backup for complete system restoration.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Explain backup and recovery methods.

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