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A server administrator notices drive C on a critical server does not have any available space, but plenty of unallocated space is left on the disk. Which of the following should the administrator perform to address the availability issue while minimizing downtime?

A.

Decrease the size of the page/swap file

A.

Decrease the size of the page/swap file

Answers
B.

Reformat drive C to use all the disk space

B.

Reformat drive C to use all the disk space

Answers
C.

Enable whole disk encryption on the hard drive

C.

Enable whole disk encryption on the hard drive

Answers
D.

Enforce disk quotas on shares within that server

D.

Enforce disk quotas on shares within that server

Answers
E.

Partition the unallocated space to provide more available space

E.

Partition the unallocated space to provide more available space

Answers
Suggested answer: E

Explanation:

If drive C is running out of space and there is unallocated space available on the disk, the best solution is to partition the unallocated space and extend drive C to include the new partition. This can be done without significant downtime and will immediately provide more space for the system.

Partition the unallocated space (Answer E): This is the simplest and least disruptive method to increase the available space on drive C.

Decreasing the page/swap file (Option A): This may free up some space but can negatively impact system performance.

Reformatting (Option B): Reformatting would result in significant downtime and data loss, making it an impractical option.

Whole disk encryption (Option C): This does not solve the issue of disk space.

Enforcing disk quotas (Option D): Disk quotas manage space usage but won't free up space on drive C.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common server problems.

Which of the following types of physical security controls would most likely be a target of a social engineering attack?

A.

A security guard

A.

A security guard

Answers
B.

An access control vestibule

B.

An access control vestibule

Answers
C.

Perimeter fencing

C.

Perimeter fencing

Answers
D.

Biometric locks

D.

Biometric locks

Answers
E.

Bollards

E.

Bollards

Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A security guard is a human element in physical security, making them susceptible to social engineering attacks. Social engineering exploits human behavior, and a guard can be tricked into allowing unauthorized access through persuasion, manipulation, or deception.

Security guard (Answer A): Human elements are the most vulnerable to social engineering techniques like impersonation or manipulation.

Access control vestibule (Option B): This is a physical security barrier, which is harder to exploit through social engineering.

Perimeter fencing (Option C): This is a static physical barrier, not susceptible to social engineering.

Biometric locks (Option D): These rely on biological data and are not susceptible to social engineering in the same way a human would be.

Bollards (Option E): Physical barriers that are not vulnerable to social engineering.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 4.4: Implement physical security controls.

Which of the following factors would most likely impact the selection of an organization's cloud provider?

A.

Industry standards

A.

Industry standards

Answers
B.

Government regulations

B.

Government regulations

Answers
C.

Company policy

C.

Company policy

Answers
D.

Organizational procedures

D.

Organizational procedures

Answers
Suggested answer: B

Explanation:

Government regulations often dictate the legal requirements for data storage, privacy, and security, which can greatly impact the selection of a cloud provider. Compliance with regulations like GDPR, HIPAA, or other local laws is critical when choosing a cloud provider to avoid legal repercussions.

Government regulations (Answer B): Cloud providers must comply with legal and regulatory requirements, making this a significant factor in provider selection.

Industry standards (Option A): While important, standards can be more flexible and are often not legally binding.

Company policy (Option C): Internal policies are important but usually stem from the need to comply with regulations.

Organizational procedures (Option D): Procedures help guide operations but don't typically dictate the choice of cloud providers.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.6: Explain the importance of cloud-based concepts and services.

A bad actor leaves a USB drive with malicious code on it in a company's parking lot. Which of the following describes this scenario?

A.

Hacking

A.

Hacking

Answers
B.

Insider threat

B.

Insider threat

Answers
C.

Phishing

C.

Phishing

Answers
D.

Social engineering

D.

Social engineering

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Leaving a USB drive in a company parking lot is a classic example of social engineering, where the bad actor relies on human curiosity to prompt someone to pick up the USB drive and insert it into their computer, potentially infecting the system with malicious code.

Social engineering (Answer D): The attacker manipulates human behavior (in this case, curiosity) to exploit security weaknesses.

Hacking (Option A): Hacking refers to directly breaching security systems or exploiting software vulnerabilities, not manipulating humans.

Insider threat (Option B): This involves a legitimate insider within the organization carrying out malicious activities, which isn't the case here.

Phishing (Option C): Phishing typically involves emails or messages designed to deceive individuals into providing sensitive information.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 4.2: Explain server security concepts and best practices.

Which of the following describes when a site is considered a warm site?

A.

It has basic technical facilities connected to it.

A.

It has basic technical facilities connected to it.

Answers
B.

It has faulty air conditioning that is awaiting service.

B.

It has faulty air conditioning that is awaiting service.

Answers
C.

It is almost ready to take over all operations from the primary site.

C.

It is almost ready to take over all operations from the primary site.

Answers
D.

It is fully operational and continuously providing services.

D.

It is fully operational and continuously providing services.

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

A warm site is a backup location that has partial infrastructure ready to support operations in the event of a failure at the primary site. It is almost ready to take over but requires some configuration or installation of data backups and software before it can become fully operational.

Warm site (Answer C): This site has the necessary equipment but requires some setup, making it a middle ground between cold and hot sites.

Basic technical facilities (Option A): This more accurately describes a cold site.

Faulty air conditioning (Option B): This is irrelevant to the definition of a warm site.

Fully operational (Option D): This describes a hot site, which is continuously ready to provide full services.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Summarize disaster recovery methods and concepts.

Which of the following would allow a server administrator to ensure all maximum available resources are being utilized?

A.

Overprovisioning

A.

Overprovisioning

Answers
B.

Scalability

B.

Scalability

Answers
C.

Thin clients

C.

Thin clients

Answers
D.

Resource Monitor

D.

Resource Monitor

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

Resource Monitor is a tool that allows administrators to monitor the system's CPU, memory, disk, and network usage in real-time, ensuring that maximum resources are being efficiently utilized.

Resource Monitor (Answer D): This tool provides real-time insights into resource utilization and can help ensure resources are not under- or over-utilized.

Overprovisioning (Option A): Refers to allocating more resources than physically available but doesn't directly monitor resource usage.

Scalability (Option B): Refers to the ability to increase or decrease resources based on demand.

Thin clients (Option C): Refer to lightweight computers that depend on servers for processing power, unrelated to resource utilization monitoring.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 2.4: Monitor server performance.

Which of the following documents would explain the consequences of server downtime?

A.

Service-level agreement

A.

Service-level agreement

Answers
B.

Business continuity plan

B.

Business continuity plan

Answers
C.

Disaster recovery plan

C.

Disaster recovery plan

Answers
D.

Business impact analysis

D.

Business impact analysis

Answers
Suggested answer: D

Explanation:

A business impact analysis (BIA) is a document that outlines the potential effects of downtime on business operations. It identifies critical business functions and estimates the impact of disruption on the organization's ability to function.

Business impact analysis (Answer D): This document is specifically designed to assess the consequences of downtime and other disruptions.

Service-level agreement (Option A): Defines the expected level of service between a provider and a client but doesn't directly explain downtime consequences.

Business continuity plan (Option B): Outlines how the business will continue operating during a disruption but doesn't focus solely on the consequences of downtime.

Disaster recovery plan (Option C): Focuses on restoring systems after a disaster but doesn't outline the specific impact of downtime.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic relates to SK0-005 Objective 4.1: Explain disaster recovery concepts.


A systems engineer is configuring a new VLAN for expansion of a campus network. The engineer configures a new DHCP scope on the existing Windows DHCP server cluster and activates the scope for the clients. However, new clients in the area report they are not receiving any DHCP address information. Which of the following should the engineer do first?

A.

Confirm the client PCs are using the correct speed on the NIC

A.

Confirm the client PCs are using the correct speed on the NIC

Answers
B.

Confirm the network uses the same NTP server as the clients

B.

Confirm the network uses the same NTP server as the clients

Answers
C.

Confirm the network has a helper address for the DHCP server

C.

Confirm the network has a helper address for the DHCP server

Answers
D.

Confirm the DHCP server is authorized in Active Directory

D.

Confirm the DHCP server is authorized in Active Directory

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

When clients on a different VLAN cannot receive DHCP addresses, it's often because there is no DHCP helper address configured on the router or switch. A DHCP relay/helper address forwards DHCP requests from clients on the VLAN to the DHCP server, which may reside on a different network.

Confirming the network has a helper address (Answer C): This should be the first step to ensure that DHCP requests from the VLAN are correctly routed to the DHCP server.

Checking client NIC speed (Option A): While important, incorrect NIC speed wouldn't affect the ability to obtain an IP address from DHCP.

Checking NTP server (Option B): Time synchronization is unrelated to DHCP issues.

Authorizing the DHCP server (Option D): This is essential for DHCP operation, but since this is an existing DHCP cluster, the helper address is more likely the issue.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 1.2: Manage server network connections.

A technician is setting up a repurposed server. The minimum requirements are 2TB while ensuring the highest performance and providing support for one drive failure. The technician has the following six drives available:

500GB, 10,000rpm

600GB, 10,000rpm

500GB, 7,200rpm

500GB, 10,000rpm

600GB, 15,000rpm

600GB, 10,000rpm

Which of the following drive selections should the technician utilize to best accomplish this goal?

A.

1, 2, 4, and 6

A.

1, 2, 4, and 6

Answers
B.

1, 2, 3, 5, and 6

B.

1, 2, 3, 5, and 6

Answers
C.

1, 2, 4, 5, and 6

C.

1, 2, 4, 5, and 6

Answers
D.

1, 2, 3, 4, and 6

D.

1, 2, 3, 4, and 6

Answers
Suggested answer: C

Explanation:

The goal is to achieve 2TB total storage, high performance, and support for one drive failure. Using RAID 5 or RAID 10 can provide redundancy while maximizing performance.

1, 2, 4, 5, and 6 (Answer C): This selection includes the highest-capacity and highest-performance drives (600GB and 500GB at high RPM speeds). Using these drives will provide the necessary capacity (500GB + 600GB + 500GB + 600GB + 600GB = 2.8TB) and performance with one drive redundancy (RAID 5 or 10).

Other options (A, B, D): These combinations either lack the necessary capacity or mix slower drives (7,200rpm), reducing overall performance.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.5: Explain storage technologies and RAID configurations.

Which of the following should a server administrator use when writing a script with a function that needs to be run ten times?

A.

Loop

A.

Loop

Answers
B.

Variable

B.

Variable

Answers
C.

Comparator

C.

Comparator

Answers
D.

Conditional

D.

Conditional

Answers
Suggested answer: A

Explanation:

A loop is a programming construct used to repeat a block of code multiple times. In this case, if a function needs to run ten times, a loop (such as a for loop or while loop) would be the appropriate choice.

Loop (Answer A): This allows the function to be executed repeatedly without writing redundant code.

Variable (Option B): A variable is used to store data, but it doesn't handle repetition.

Comparator (Option C): Comparators are used to compare values, not for repeating code.

Conditional (Option D): Conditionals (if, else) are used for decision-making, not repeating actions multiple times.

CompTIA Server+

Reference:

This topic is related to SK0-005 Objective 1.1: Understand basic scripting and automation concepts.

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